1 Timothy 2:6 (page 7)

jgnat

Well I've been told.

I don't know WHERE you read hate in to our exchange. You are in serious denial, defd.

Sunspot

you want me to READ all those posts on that thread? Too many I read the first page and I am not interested in the suspense. If you read it , Please tell me what it said and I will comment.

And you called Jgnat blind???? Please!

defd

well i am ready to hear it. I havent heard any thing from the platform in my Congrgation as of yet. What could it be?

D.

Sunspot

Well I've been told.

Consider the source!

For all his bravado....I'll just bet that he has read and absorbed each and every word on Barbara's thread! LOL!

Betcha you can't wait either, eh, defed? hahahahaha!

Sunspot

***I havent heard any thing from the platform in my Congrgation as of yet.

Maybe because the news has not been released yet, ya think?

***What could it be?

We ALL want to know.......some of us obviously for very different reasons.

TheListener

Defd said:

Td it makes a big difference. Ransom and Corresponding does NOT mean the same! However put them togehter it means something all together different. .

So what does that say about Jesus Ransom? What did he pay a price for? For PERFECT HUMAN LIFE. Adam forfieted perfect human life Jesus bought it back by paying the Ransom... ( the Corresponding Ransom) Perfect life for perfect life. Which also would help in understanding the Jesus being God doctrine. If Jesus were God would it have really been a CORRESPONDING ransom? D.

Which leaves me with a question. If the Greek text uses Antilutron (Strong's #487) which means "what is given in exchange for another as the price of his redemption, ransom." And as DEFD stated "Ransom and Corresponding does NOT mean the same! However put them togehter(sic) it means something all together different."

So the NWT seems to be changing the meaning. Since the word "corresponding" isn't in the original text; and adding the word "corresponding" to "ransom" gives it a different meaning - then the meaning in the NWT isn't what was intended by the original Greek text.

LittleToe

The only place you'll find the word "perfect" in the whole of Deuteronomy in the NWT is in chapter 32:4 where it says:

"The Rock, perfect is his activity, For all his ways are justice. A God of faithfulness, with whom there is no injustice; Righteous and upright is he."

It doesn't speak about mankind at all, unless you're going to say that it refers to Christ as the cornerstone the builders rejected. However in that case you'd have to concede that Jesus is Jehovah

Or on another note, the Hebrew word rendered "perfect" is tamiym and is found in the following places regarding people (which I'd quote, but I don't want to make you lazy). Enjoy, because they are enlightening...

...it's translated as faultless, blameless, or righteous, in the NWT:

Gen.6:9; Gen.17:1; Deut.18:13; Prov.2:21; Prov.11:5;

As they say, let a man with a little knowledge loose on an interlinear and you have a dangerous thing. That certainly proved true for Russell, et al.

defd

Since the word "corresponding" isn't in the original text;

My research says otherwise. show me where you looked.

D

heathen

I think the term perfect is meant to imply that they were without sin . What's the problem with that ? It's clear they had Gods approval until they ate from the tree of knowledge .

I do have my websters here and correspond just means suitable or to be in agreement .

Jeeze people what is the deal today ?

defd

I think the term perfect is meant to ;imply that they were without sin

Exactlly!

D.

1 Timothy 2:6

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