Jesus said that the ONLY ONE who had the right to have the Title "Good" was GOD.
Then, later, Jesus claims the Title "Good" for Himself.
Undisfellowshipped,
Which proves nothing. Why? Because such titles and expressions are shared in scripture but the context in which they are used are vastly different. Absolute use praising the Father is not the same as general use in an entirely different context. This is also true of the term GOD which can be used to describe the Almighty or Humans in Authority. And this is also why scripture cannot be rolled out en mass as many do here because each verse has a context or its own setting which alters the meaning or application of words considerably. Using your method of interpretation then Good men are also part of your Deity as only such Deity can be called good as you state.
Titus 1:8 But a lover of hospitality, a lover of good men, sober, just, holy, temperate; {men: or, things}
Now if you disagree with such use regarding such good men then your application of Good Shepherd is just as meaningless as shown by this text. Such arguments are really silly since we are discussing the true nature of God, something easily explained. Yet Trinitarians must use word matches such as this one since they cannot provide any clear text on the subject. And they must disregard texts that refute Trinitarian views.
The I AM argument is another example. In the Septuagint the Greek text is rendered as I AM the BEING a fact well know to the Jews in Jesus day. Yet in John our Lord simply said I am, and this is even translated I am in the KJV (small letters) a common expression not related to the Hebrew text in Exodus in any way. Any comparison to the Greek text is avoided naturally. And when this is shown to be true they continue to use this point over and over never correcting such error hoping to find someone else to dupe with this theology or argument.
Joseph
Edited by - JosephMalik on 29 November 2002 7:18:9
