Jwfacts, Why Do You Equate Miracles With Magic?

by Recovery 398 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • Recovery
    Recovery

    Finklestein:

    Another posing thought to the original article on JWfact's web site ....

    Is a child who is playing with a toy that resembles a magician (Sparlock), practicing magic or just studying magic ?

    and if so why should a toy of this kind be taken away ?

    No I would not say that a child is practicing magic by using a toy like Sparlock. Didn't you watch the DVD? It explicitly explained the reasoning behind the mom's decision to tell her child to throw the child away. If Jehovah says magic is detestable and that he hates it, can a person honestly in good conscience say they show a hatred for what God disapproves of by having a toy that imitates and bedazzles the idea of wizardry? Most reasonable people would say no.

    KingSolomon: All you did was quote secular authorities who speculate as to what kind of 'magic' they believe Moses employed. They speculate as to what his training would have consisted of and what it would have entailed being a son of Pharoah's daughter. It is complete conjecture, supposition, and speculation to say that Moses would have relied on Egyptian magic to perform his miracles. I think that's a stretch of immense proportions. Moses has to choose between Almighty God's assistance, and the assistance of the Egyptians whom he utterly demonstrated to be completely powerless with the intervention of Jehovah. Somehow, I don't find it likely to make such assertions about Moses.

  • Acluetofindtheuser
    Acluetofindtheuser

    What witness has decided to allow viewing of I Dream of Jeannie and not Bewitched?

    Or even allowed The Lord of the Rings and not Harry Potter?

    Some families are different and not as strict as others. I've heard some say that I Dream of Jeannie is fantasy and Bewitched is outright witchcraft.

    One must be mature enough to know the difference between the dangerous occult and a play toy. Level headed parents don't need the Society to tell them that.

  • jwfacts
    jwfacts

    Recovery - And have you read the personal attacks jwfacts has launched against me? Ha, he said I'm trying to start my own cult among other things. What I said was a pat back on the back in comparison.

    You are showing over and over you have no qualms about misquoting or lying and yet attack me as the liar. I did not say you are starting your own cult, but that you are "on the verge." You may want to look up the "etymology" of what verge means. Following is my quote in context.

    You sound like you are on the verge of setting up another religion. There have been a number of JWs leave the religion, make a few adjustments to the doctrine, and start their own sect.

    Your Great Crowd discussion was a mix of your own reasonings trying to prop up Watchtower teachings. That is only one step away from you wanting to promote your own teachings ahead of the Watchtower. The fact that your being here is in direct violation of Watchtower policy shows you have no regard for what you claim is "the Truth."

    You are so full of your own interpretation and defence of Watchtower doctrine, yet with your own non-Watchtower twist included, that it is only a small leap to you deciding you are above them and going it alone. You would not be the first person that has decided to start a reformed Watchtower movement.

  • King Solomon
    King Solomon

    jwfacts said:

    You are so full of your own interpretation and defence of Watchtower doctrine, yet with your own non-Watchtower twist included, that it is only a small leap to you deciding you are above them and going it alone. You would not be the first person that has decided to start a reformed Watchtower movement.

    Yep, he did it here, too, trying to claim that studying magic was acceptable, whereas practicing magic is not.

    Isn't there a funny-sounding name for those JWs who go off the reservation to invent their own doctrinal interpretations over those of the GB? A word that starts with an "A"?

  • Recovery
    Recovery

    The WT quotes a secular authority that says that Daniel studied magic (astrology and omens), thus agreeing with such a possibility. They also say that practicing magic is detestable. How am I diverging any information that is somehow different from what is in the WT? One day, I'm a brainwashed fanatic who is incapable of defending himself without the WT, the next I am trying to start my own cult with my own ideas and interpretations.

    Somehow I think the more likely conclusion is that you simply haven't researched any WT articles without the anti JW glasses on to see what they really teach in a while.

  • rather be in hades
    rather be in hades

    if the jws are supposedly using secular sources to back up their claims (they're not) then why would we need to look at wt sources when they are supposedly using secular sources to piece together their information anywawy?

  • Recovery
    Recovery

    If you do not have the time or willpower to read thru 20 pages of information simply read my one, consolidated post that proves conclusively that magic is not equivocated with miracles.

    Showing That Magics Cannot Be Equivocated To Miracles:

    Illustrations:
    You have two cars. They look exactly the same. They are both brand new, being driven for the first time with 0 mileage. They are the same shape, size, color, and have all the same features on the outside. But one is a hybrid car that runs off a battery and the other car runs on premium gas. Now will you ever hear a car dealership call these two cars the same, sell them for the same price, and make absolutely no distinction between the two? Of course not. You would definitely want to know whether your car is a hybrid or a regular car no matter how similar they look on the outside. That is the difference between magic and miracles. On the outside, they may appear to be the same, and allow you to reach a particular destination (supernatural repercussions), but the source (the inside of the car) is what makes them different. That is why one is condemned (magic) and one is approved by God (miracles).

    Now here's an illustration. Imagine that your license as an attorney has been suspended temporarily and you are ordered by the state board to not practice any form of law, as your license is now suspended. Would you violate the law if you study your old college law books, examine precedent court cases, and learn new techniques by watching other lawyers present their cases? Of course not. You were instructed to not practice law.

    You have two identical ovens, side by side. One is conventional, the other is convectional. Surely, when you are baking, you will note that there are some recipes that call for different instructions when using a conventional or a convectional oven. Now why is that, elderelite? In fact when baking, if you are using a conventional oven you might have to use a completely different temperature than if you were using a convectional oven. Both ovens are identical in model and both get the job of baking done. So why do some recipes call for different instructions for two seemingly identical ovens who simply have a different SOURCE of energy (speaking on a molecular level)? Is it because that source is important and makes a big difference?

    So you are saying that how the electricity is used makes the difference and the distinction between the two ovens, correct?

    So I am saying that how the supernatural force is used makes the difference and the distinction between miracles and magic.

    A miracle's supernatural force is under the manipulation of God, a magic's supernatural force is under the manipulation of something other than God.

    The "How" is the defining difference as you showed us quite clearly, elderelite.

    The Bible vs. jwfacts:

    Jehovah says "YOU must not look for omens, and YOU must not practice magic." (Lev 19:26)

    Jwfacts says: All the people in the Bible DID practice magic and there was no distinction between the practice of magic and miracles performed of God, directly contradicting God's word.

    Etymologically Speaking:

    Etymological origins of magic: Middle English magique, from Middle French, from Latin magice, from Greek magike, feminine of magikosMagian, magical, from magos magus, sorcerer , of Iranian origin; akin to Old Persian maguš sorcerer

    Etymological origins of miracle: Middle English, from Anglo-French, from Late Latin miraculum, from Latin, a wonder, marvel, from mirarito wonder at

    Lexicographically Speaking:

    After looking up the word magic a thesarus we find the following associated synonyms:bewitchery, bewitchment, conjuring, devilry(or deviltry) , diablerie, enchantment, ensorcellment, mojo, necromancy, sorcery, thaumaturgy, voodooism, witchcraft, witchery, wizardry

    Now logically if two words can be used interchangeably and they have the same meaning, you should likewise find *SIMILAR* synonyms when you look up each word. But such an occurrence cannot be found with the words 'magic' and 'miracle'.

    After looking up the word miracle in a thesarus we find the following associated synonyms: caution, flash, marvel, wonder, phenomenon, portent, prodigy, sensation, splendor

    What If There's No Apparent Distinction From Onlookers:

    We are not allowing the 'onlookers' to define what is magic for us, anymore than we would allow the pagan idol worshippers to define who/what is 'God' for us. That is a fallacious and weak argument, because of course those who believe in and practice sorcery, witchcraft, and other forms of spiritism would only view such a thing as magic as there is no distinction from their standpoint.

    Of course, if I am not a Hebrew, I am likely a pagan who believes in thousands of deities. If we are talking about something of a Biblical theological nature, should the pagan's viewpoint be weighed equivocally with that of the Hebrews? Should it be argued that the Bible teaches that there a hundreds and hundreds of 'God's' because many pagan deities are mentioned and when many miracles were performed, independent observers couldn't attribute the difference to Jehovah or one of their gods? Of course not. This isn't about neutrality from a certain individual's standpoint, but this is about the distinction that the Bible makes for us. We could argue in circles all day long about what consistutes a miracle and what consistitutes magic, but when we are speaking from a strictly Biblical perspective, the distinction between the two is made clear.

    Use of a Similar Adjective (Miraculous):

    We have now moved from the realm of nouns to the realm of adjectives. This is where the distinction becomes muddy because the practice itself is not being described, however, a description of said practice is being described. Let me illustrate it for you. You have two words of a religious association: bishop and minister. Now I'm sure if you go to the dictionary you can find that both nouns can be described as 'religious', perhaps even more specificially having to do with 'Christian religion'. Would you conclude that the word minister is the lexicographical equivalent of bishop and that they should be used interchangeably because as adjectives they are described using similar words? Of course not. A minister can simply be defined as a preacher or a servant, while a bishop MUST have some form of ecclesiastical authority, yet they are both described and related to a religious nature. I hope this helps.

    Casting Spells?:

    There are those that will argue that the use of amen is essentially the same as the use of abracadabra. But is this really the case?

    This word in both English and Greek is a transliteration from the Hebrew 'a·men′. The meaning is “so be it,” or “surely.” The Hebrew root word from which it is drawn ('a·man′) means “be faithful; be trustworthy.” When a person says something that is agreeable, the term "amen" is often used.

    Now if someone says something that you agree with, are you likely to say abracadabra? Why or why not?

  • Finkelstein
    Finkelstein

    If Jehovah says magic is detestable and that he hates it, can a person honestly in good conscience say they show a hatred for what God disapproves of by having a toy that imitates and bedazzles the idea of wizardry? Most reasonable people would say no.

    Ironic that god Yahweh says he hates magic yet performs magic continuously throughout the bible.

    Maybe those scribes were just making shit up just to create power and relevance toward their select own god .....uummmm ????

    Kind of like what the WTS. does about themselves Bullshit for power, stature and money !

  • King Solomon
    King Solomon

    So if Caleb is not practicing magic (per your answer above), is he studying magic? (And that defense is NOT advisable, btw, telling elders you only have a Ouija Board but only to study magic, not to practice it, lol!).

    If not, then what is Caleb doing that is making YHWH "unhappy"? What's the scriptural basis for prohibiting possession of a toy that "bedazzles and imitates" something that God hates? Even as a conscience matter?

    Interesting that Moses imitated Egyptian magic practices/rituals/incantations that YHWH hates to perform miracles, and Daniel imitated Babylonian magical practices that God hates, as well? Double-standard for Caleb?

  • King Solomon
    King Solomon

    Recovedy said:

    KingSolomon: All you did was quote secular authorities who speculate as to what kind of 'magic' they believe Moses employed. They speculate as to what his training would have consisted of and what it would have entailed being a son of Pharoah's daughter. It is complete conjecture, supposition, and speculation to say that Moses would have relied on Egyptian magic to perform his miracles. I think that's a stretch of immense proportions.

    Are you doubting a famed Egyptologist, who's forgotten more about Egyptian society (based on historical evidence) than you'll ever know? Wow....

    Do you think it outlandish to accept the words of the Bible itself, which states that he was trained in the secrets of the Egyptians? Just what exactly do you think that phrase "powerful in words and deeds" means?

    Moses has to choose between Almighty God's assistance, and the assistance of the Egyptians whom he utterly demonstrated to be completely powerless with the intervention of Jehovah. Somehow, I don't find it likely to make such assertions about Moses.

    "Completely powerless"? Over-state much?

    Remember, the Pharaoh's magicians kept up, performing the same exact trick of turning a staff into a serpent, until Moses' snake overpowered the Pharoah's serpent.

    What was the source of THEIR power? What is the source of Satans magical power? Did YHWH forget to design an emergency shutoff valve for Satan's magical power feed, or does YHWH actively enable the magic of Satan?

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