I_love_Jeff
JoinedTopics Started by I_love_Jeff
-
1
Genesis 8:21 is not referring to the whole earth?
by I_love_Jeff ingenesis 8:21 .
"this particular text was written in the wake of the assyrian invasion of judah and the siege of jerusalem by sennacherib in 703-701 bc (20 years after he had already wiped out israel).
here the author resorts to hyperbole (exaggeration) in describing the utter destruction of the land of judah: that is, the destruction of judah is envisioned as the destruction of the whole earth.
-
31
Why not extend your child's life and take the consequences?
by I_love_Jeff injehovah's witnesses & blood transfusions.
if your son or daughter were badly burned, he or she would require regular whole blood transfusions.
as a good jehovah's witness, it is your duty to refuse this procedure and watch your child die instead.
-
7
Does Jehovah need any protection?
by I_love_Jeff indoes jehovah need to be protected by a zealous scribe***** (masoretic text) or anyone else?
deuteronomy 32:8 is a textbook example of how later scribes sometimes changed the biblical text in a misguided attempt to “protect” god’s reputation.
deut 32:8, eliminates references to other divine beings (32:8, “sons of god”; 32:43, “heavenly ones” and “gods”).
-
6
Does this make any sense “according to the number of the sons of Israel” ?
by I_love_Jeff inhow does god dividing humankind and fixing the boundaries of the peoples “according to the number of the sons of israel” make any sense if the nation of israel did not even exist yet?
(genesis 10) "it makes little sense for god, shortly after he dispersed the nations at babel, to have based the number of geographical regions on the earth on the family size of israel, especially since there was no jewish race at the time (genesis 10 table of nations).
this problem is compounded when one considers deuteronomy 32:9. what logical correlation was moses making when he wrote in verse 8 that god "set the bounds of the people according to the number of the children of israel" and then made the concluding observation in verse 9 that "the lord's portion is his people, jacob his allotted inheritance" (niv)?
-
12
Are there close parallels between Deuteronomy 32:8, Genesis 10 and the Ugaritic tablets?
by I_love_Jeff inaccording to these sources (city of ancient ugaritic tablets found in 1928) , elyon divided up all the nations into seventy nations, one for each of his sons (elim) .
sons of god makes the most sense than the sons of israel-deut.
32:8 especially since there was no nation of israel listed in the table of nations.
-
5
Daniel 10:13 and 20 speak of demons governing their respective nations?
by I_love_Jeff interritorial spirits-.
daniel 10:13,20 prince of persia.
deut: 32:9 “when the most high divided the nations, when he separated the sons of adam, he set the bounds of the nations according to the number of the angels of god.
-
3
Are the "angels of God", and "sons of Israel" the same thing?
by I_love_Jeff injust recently i posted a question on yahoo answers and asked a simple question to the jehovah's witnesses about the "sons of israel" and "sons of god".here is the question: .
are the "angels of god", and "sons of israel" the same thing?
if you apply the same translation (angels of god) in deuteronomy 32:43 to deuteronomy 32:8 we have this: when the most high divided the nations, when he separated the sons of adam, he set the bounds of the nations according to the number of the angels of god.
-
1
Is the Divine Council, Sons of God, on earth or in the heavens?
by I_love_Jeff inin an interview by our radio station called watchtower of babel, we ask dr. heiser (skip to the fiftieth minute of the interview (50:47).
it is about 5 minutes long) about the parallel passages: psalm 82 (sons of god) and psalm 89:5-7 [6-8] (sons of the most high) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uq_phnl1... “psalm 82:1 is perhaps the best example, as it employs the expression ʿdt ʾil(m)(divine council) (hebrew: ףֲדַת־אֵל ) for the council, along with a transparent reference to gods under the authority of israel's god: ‚god (אֱלֹהִים ) stands in the council of el/the divine council (ףֲדַת־אֵל ); among the gods (אֱלֹהִים ) he passes judgment.‛ the second occurrence of אֱלֹהִים (gods) must be semantically plural due to the preposition ‚in the midst of.‛ (deut 32:8-9 (lxx, dss).
a parallel passage, psalm 89:5-7 [6-8], places the god of israel ‚in the assembly of the holy ones‛ (בִקְהַל קְדֹשִים ) and then asks ‚ [for who in the clouds] (בַשַחַק ) can be compared to yahweh?
-
Where is the Divine Assembly?
by I_love_Jeff inwhere is the divine assembly mentioned in psalm 82?
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=uq_phnl1b_o.
in an interview by your favorite radio station (lol) watchtower of babel, we ask dr. heiser (starts at 50:47 see link above) about the parallel passages: psalm 82 (divine council-sons of god) and psalm 89:5-7 [6-8] (sons of the most high) : .
-
47
Has the Bible been redacted so that YAHWEH can be promoted to EL's position as Almighty God?
by I_love_Jeff infor background, read: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/yahweh, the section, "iron age i: el, yahweh, and the origins of israel.
" "el and his sons made up the assembly of the gods, each member of which had a human nation under his care, and a textual variant of deuteronomy 32:8–9 describes the sons of el, including yahweh, each receiving his own people.
"el, the kind, the compassionate,' 'the creator of creatures,' was the chief of the canaanite gods, and he, not yahweh, was the original 'god of israel'—the word 'israel' is based on the name el rather than yahweh.