My comments about EL and LA being definitive articles in langs like sp is speculation. However it is very intriging that both terms are also names of the major heavenly bodies being the sun and moon.
??? The PIE words for sun and moon were *soh 2 wl and *méh 1 ns, and there were also derivatives from *kand "shine" and *lewk "bright, light". The Proto-Semitic words for sun and moon were *šamš- (whence Akkadian šamšu, Hebrew šemeš, and Arabic šamš) and *warihh- (whence Akkadian warhhu and Hebrew yâréach); the Arabic word for "moon" (qámar) is from a different root. The Proto-Semitic pantheon included, separate from *Ilu (the sky god), the sun goddess *Šamšu and the moon god *Warihhu. The Akkadian name for the moon god was Sîn. None of these use "el" or "la" as names for the sun and moon.
While i cannot present definitive scholarly proof, we have an almost identical situation in Arabic and its many forms which cover large parts of Asia , Africa and North Africa. Ive included a small snippet about this discussion taken from wiki. It would seem that Arabs have adopted the sun and moon in an almost equally significant extent.
In Arabic and Maltese, the consonants are divided into two groups, called the sun letters or solar letters (Arabic: ???? ????? ?uruf šamsiyyah) and moon letters or lunar letters ( ???? ????? ?uruf qamariyyah), based on whether or not they assimilate the lam ( ? l)  of a preceding definite article al- (???). These names come from the fact that the word for "the sun", aš-šams , assimilates the lam, while the word for "the moon",al-qamar , does not.
LOL that has absolutely NOTHING to do with anything. That is simply a phonological assimilation rule that by convention is named after two very common everyday words (that are related in concept). Its just a grammatical rule that has a memorable mnemonic; why must every reference to the "sun" or "moon" have some religious sun-worship meaning read into it?
With the example of Arabic i just presented, we cannot exactly say that some god like EL, is not present. If it happened to arabic why not other european langs. After all Europe adopted many things from the levant.
???? This does not make any sense. I'm not against the idea of cultural and linguistic transfer (there's tons of evidence of this), but your examples are bogus.
your examples show a common root for night and dark. Is it a coincidence that our own word for no and negative also has a common N. The Bible itself uses light to symbolize goodness and dark as evil, thus is it not hard to reason that YES or JESUS share a common ancestry somewhere in much the same way the oppose night and no are similar in some way.
LOL, now "n" is come to signify something dark and evil and "y" signifies light and goodess??? There is no substance to your suggestion about "yes" and "Jesus", like all your other suggestions. The English word "yes" is from Old English gèse "so be it" which is a compound of gea "yea" and sie "it should be", the third person singular subjunctive form of beòn "to be", a compound originating in West Saxon *géasi. Whatever superficial phonetic similarity you are pointing to (evidently involving the /s/) cannot possibly be part of any invented "common ancestry".
The parade in specious etymologies in this thread has been quite amusing.