Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?

by Spike Tassel 163 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • oompa
  • oompa
    oompa

    once again i did an edit, and it posts over and over!!!......had to delete about 6 pages twice!...now trying again:

    having read all of this thread now on a subject i researched for an entire year, i am very disappointed that there is little if any answers from WT SOURCE MATERIAL!!.....esp by those defending its use in the NT!......cmon, at least study like you are doing a number four talk..."factual" claims are made that are off the charts wrong, and without any support....dubs always like to make sure an answer is "printed in the WT"......so here is some WT info/answers.

    btw...the JW official position is so nonsensical and illogical i can hardly stand it....in a nutshell it is that jesus and apostles surely used the name at least when quoting OT scriptures containing the name......and......that it "MUST" have been there in the original writings and was removed by early apostates in the second or third centuries.......ALL of their own material refutes these ideas as you will see.....the illogical part of this is why the fluck would apostates remove the name Jehovah 237 times when christians use the OT too and the evil apostates decided to leave it in even older manuscripts near 7000 times!?!?!?......ridiculous!.......plus...if apostates wanted to whack out some superfast growing faith, or pollute it...would it not make more sense to remove the name JESUS CHRIST, or create doubt that he was real??? Also, satan/apostates sure were dammm thorough to somehow remove the divine name from EVERY FRIKKIN ANCIENT MANUSCRIPT OF THE CHRISTIAN GREEK SCRIPTURES ON EARTH!!!....there is about 10,000 of them existing at least in part, and ya....no yhwh

    WT material:

    Insight book

    ***it-2p.9Jehovah***

    In the Christian Greek Scriptures. In view of this evidence it seems most unusual to find that the extant manuscript copies of the original text of the Christian Greek Scriptures do not contain the divine name in its full form. The name therefore is also absent from most translations of the so-called New Testament. Yet the name does appear in these sources in its abbreviated form at Revelation 19:1, 3, 4, 6, in the expression "Alleluia" or "Hallelujah" (KJ,Dy,JB,AS,RS). The call there recorded as spoken by spirit sons of God to "Praise Jah, you people!" (NW) makes clear that the divine name was not obsolete; it was as vital and pertinent as it had been in the pre-Christian period. Why, then, the absence of its full form from the Christian Greek Scriptures?

    Why is the divine name in its full form not in any available ancient manuscript of the Christian Greek Scriptures?cause it warnt there! and interestingly, WT says that the oldest copy goes back to just 25 years after John died and use that fact to show that no major changes could have occurred so soon after the apostles death!

    Appendix in Reference Bible NWT:

    ***Rbi8p.15621B Scribal Changes Involving the Divine Name***

    Gins. Mas , Vol. IV, p. 28, § 115, says: "We have seen that in many of these one hundred and thirty-four instances in which the present received text reads Adonai in accordance with this Massorah, some of the best MSS. and early editions read the Tetragrammaton, and the question arises how did this variation obtain? The explanation is not far to seek. From time immemorial the Jewish canons decreed that the incommunicable name is to be pronounced Adonai as if it were written ???? [’Adho·nai´] instead of ???? [YHWH]. Nothing was, therefore, more natural for the copyists than to substitute the expression which exhibited the pronunciation for the Tetragrammaton which they were forbiden to pronounce."

    anybody still think jesus and apostle would have read or said the NAME?.....use of it had stopped WAY before his time according to this...in fact, check with jewish rabbias and historians and you will find that in jesus day the NAME was used ONLY once a year and ONLY by the high priest, and ONLY in the most holy....all hell would have broke out if people read the name aloud in public

    you gotta love this next one:

    ***

    Rbi8p.15641D The Divine Name in the Christian Greek Scriptures

    ***

    There is evidence that Jesus’ disciples used the Tetragrammaton in their writings. In his work Devirisinlustribus [ConcerningIllustriousMen], chapter III, Jerome, in the fourth century, wrote the following: "Matthew, who is also Levi, and who from a publican came to be an apostle, first of all composed a Gospel of Christ in Judaea in the Hebrew language and characters for the benefit of those of the circumcision who had believed. Who translated it after that in Greek is not sufficiently ascertained. Moreover, the Hebrew itself is preserved to this day in the library at Caesarea, which the martyr Pamphilus so diligently collected. I also was allowed by the Nazarenes who use this volume in the Syrian city of Beroea to copy it."

    Jerome wrote the latin vulgate...no yhwh there either....if he had found the NAME in this ancient hebrew copy of Mathew in Beorea...it would have been like finding the frikkin holy grail!!.....yet he never even mentions it and he wrote a good bit about the name yhwh...so how is this historical quote "evidence that jesus disciples used the Ttragrammaton in their writings?"........it actually totally refutes that they used or wrote it!!!!.......they just like saying they have evidence when they have none........

  • Spike Tassel
    Spike Tassel

    Here's what is currently available on Wikipedia's English site regarding the Tetragrammaton in the NT:— http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton_in_the_New_Testament

  • Spike Tassel
    Spike Tassel

    Here's an article discussing the issue "Is the New World Translation a Better Bible?", for those who may be interested:— http://www.tetragrammaton.org/english_is_nwt_better.htm

  • Spike Tassel
    Spike Tassel

    And here's Eric Francke's take, in his article "The Tetragrammaton and the Christian Scriptures":— http://www.neirr.org/Tetragrammaton.htm

  • Spike Tassel
    Spike Tassel

    Here, at last, what I've been looking for, entitled "Is The Name YHWH in the New Testament?":— http://www.equipministry.com/studies/yhwhinnt.htm

  • sacolton
    sacolton

    From the "Is the New World Translation a Better Bible?" ...

    The New World Translation has failed the test that says that the best Bible translation will tell us the exact thoughts of the original writers of the Hebrew and Greek portions of the Bible in a way that is easily understood in our own language. The New World Translation does not accurately translate what the New Testament writers said about Jesus.

    Evaluating the New World Translation

    1. We said that a good translation tells us the exact thoughts of the original Bible writers. The Old Testament writers used God's name over 6,800 times. A good translation of the Bible should use God's name in the Old Testament. Regrettably, many Bible translations today do not. However, the New World Translation uses the name Jehovah over 6,800 times in the Old Testament. In this area, the New World Translation has correctly told us the meaning intended by the original writers.

    2. The translators of the New World Translation have used the name Jehovah 237 times in the New Testament. There is no New Testament Greek manuscript evidence that shows that the Hebrew name of God was ever used. However, if the Hebrew name of God had been used, then there would need to have been an explanation for its removal. There is no historic record of any debate among the early Christians regarding the removal of the Hebrew name of God from their Scriptures. The translators of the New World Translation mislead their readers. With no Greek manuscript or historical evidence, they changed the word Lord that was written by the inspired New Testament writers to Jehovah in 237 verses.

    3. We also find serious inconsistency in the translators' use of Jehovah in the New Testament. They say that they will insert Jehovah when an Old Testament verse using the Hebrew name of God is quoted. In almost all cases they follow their rule. However, when 1 Peter 3:15 quotes an Old Testament verse using the Hebrew name of God, it is omitted in the New World Translation because it would identify Jesus as God. When Philippians 2:10-11 gives qualities to Jesus that can only be true of God, they do not acknowledge that the verse is an Old Testament quotation.

    4. The translators are also inconsistent in their use of Hebrew versions. In most instances, when a Hebrew version uses the Hebrew name of God, they insert Jehovahinto the New Testament verse. On the other hand, even though seven Hebrew versions use the Hebrew name of God in 1 Peter 3:15, they still do not insert Jehovahas noted above. If the translators had inserted Jehovah in this verse, it would have identified Jesus with Jehovah. Many Hebrew versions have used the Hebrew name of God to identify Jesus with Jehovah. However, the translators of the New World Translation have avoided making that identification in their own translation.

    5. In certain passages, words have actually been inserted to change the meaning of the Bible. When talking about Jesus, Colossians 1:16 says, "For in Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth." However, the New World Translation says, "By means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens and upon the earth." Because Jehovah's Witnesses believe that Jesus was created as the first son of the Father, they have added the word "other" to this verse. The word "other" has been inserted four times in this chapter so that they can teach that Jesus was created. In verses 16 and 17 the New World Translation says, "All [other] things have been created through him and for him. Also, he is before all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to exist."

    6. Sometimes the translators of the New World Translation give the same word from the original Greek language two different meanings so that they do not identify Jesus with Jehovah. Their own Greek New Testament uses a single word to mean "obeisance." When the New World Translation uses this word about the Lord Jesus, they translate it as "obeisance. However, when they translate the same word about Jehovah, they translate it as "worship."

    7. When reading the Jehovah's Witnesses' New World Translation it is obvious that they have published a Bible for the purpose of teaching their own doctrine. They have done this by changing the meaning of the most authentic ancient Greek manuscripts of the New Testament.

  • Spike Tassel
    Spike Tassel

    After citing various references, I believe that "Is The Name YHWH in the New Testament?" makes the most sense, though some minor proofreading errors could be corrected by whoever is duly authorised to do such. It is the most comprehensive, and it works with extant historical evidence that actually backs my intuition that YHWH's name properly has been in the NT since its inception, both in concept and in fact:— http://www.equipministry.com/studies/yhwhinnt.htm

  • Chalam
    Chalam

    OK what name can we be saved by? Yahweh or Jesus?

    All the best,

    Stephen

  • possible-san
    possible-san

    Chalam.

    You are a really insincere person.

    You want to only deny Jehovah/Yahweh.

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