Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures? (page 12)

PSacramento

Spike,

I can understand that you would think that the "Is the name YHWH in the New testatment" makes the most sense, because it says what you have said before, but id doesn't prove it.

Now, that siad, like I have mentioned before, the use of YHWH in the NT in regards to OT passages that are being quoted is something that NO ONE argues with, if of course the tetragrammaton was there to begin with and IF it does NOT change the context of the passage/verse/chapter.

That is truly the big issue more than any other.

Also, the continued reference to the passges that mention the word "NAME" or show Jesus saying the word "NAME" don't ADD to your argument because, as we know NAME has far greater meaning than the actual name AND because Jesus Says the word NAME and DOES NOT say the actual NAME !

possible-san

The Hebrew New Testament of UBS has restored the divine name in the New Testament.

Moreover, there is many other translation which has restored the divine name.
http://godpresencewithin.web.fc2.com/pages/link/link03.html

It is meaningless even if you blame only the NWT.

possible

PSacramento

Possible-san,

What is the UBS ?

possible-san

PSacramento.

That "UBS" is the "United Bible Societies."

PSacramento

I look it up as I was waiting for your reply :)

I found the Greek NT but didn't find the Hebrew NT...

Most of the bible translations you shoed on the japanese site that use Jehovah or Yahweh, use them in the OT and some, liek Young's Literal Translation are far older than the NWT, some say that many pasages of the NWT are from YLT or based there on, neverthless, you don't see Jehovah or Yahweh appear outside the OT or OT quotations.

Spike Tassel

PSacramento, Matthew 4:4,7,10 is where Jesus is speaking with Satan. He use Jehovah's name in each of these 3 verses as the NWT and as the UBS NT demonstrates. If I had a copy of the Hexapla (etc.) cited at http://www.equipministry.com/studies/yhwhinnt.htm, I would likely find sound corroboration on this point.

PSacramento

Spike,

I can see that, because Jesus is quote Detronomy, that it can used in those passage, with out much argument, note though that, Youngs for example, does NOT translate it as such.

Nevertheless, under the context that JESUS is quoting, I agree that YHWH can and should be there.

Chalam

You want to only deny Jehovah/Yahweh.

No I have a valid and fundamental question and Spike should be able to provide an answer as to the bible he no doubt claims is the "most accurate".

I do not deny the Father at all. I call Him "Father", "Big Dad" and "Super Pops". He likes that kind of affection from His children :)

Now, my point is there is only one way to Him.

John 14:6 (New International Version)

6 Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.

Now if "those that call on the name of Jehovah will be saved" then John 14:6 makes no sense i.e. "No one comes to the Father expect through Jehovah"?!

All the best,

Stephen

possible-san

PSacramento.

Since I do not speak English at all, I cannot immediately reply to you.

Aren't you an ex-Jehovah's Witnesses?
It is shown in the NWT by the symbol "J22."

*** Rbi8 p. 10 Introduction ***
J22 Christian Greek Scriptures, Heb., by United Bible Societies, Jerusalem, 1979.

The Bible Society in Israel translated this and the UBS has published it.

Since the UBS has published it, if your country has "Bible Society", probably you can get it.

Well, the Bible Society in Israel has published newer translation.
http://www.amazon.com/Hebrew-English-Diglot-Bible-NKJV-American-Society/dp/9654310058/ref=sr_1_1?ie=UTF8&s=books&qid=1247256407&sr=8-1

possible
http://godpresencewithin.web.fc2.com/

PSacramento

Possible-san,

Thanks for the reply and no, I am not an Ex-jehovah's witness, I am an ex-roman catholic.

Arigatou Gozaimasu

;)

Is God's name absent in the Christian Scriptures?

John 14:6 (New International Version)

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