Reniaa,
Do you say that "a god" is the best way to translate John 1:1? Do you have any Greek scholars or experts who agree with you on that? Do you personally know Koine Greek? Have you read any Greek dictionaries/lexicons?
Are you aware that the Reasoning Book (and other Watchtower publications) quotes a Greek expert who says that the best way to translate John 1:1 is to say that "the Word has the Nature of God"?
Reasoning Book, Pages 416-417:
"Philip B. Harner said that such clauses as the one in John 1:1, “with an anarthrous predicate preceding the verb, are primarily qualitative in meaning. They indicate that the logos has the nature of theos.” He suggests: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87)"
Insight Book, Volume 2, Page 54:
"Elaborating on this point, Philip B. Harner brought out that the grammatical construction in John 1:1 involves an anarthrous predicate, that is, a predicate noun without the definite article “the,” preceding the verb, which construction is primarily qualitative in meaning and indicates that “the logos has the nature of theos.” He further stated: “In John 1:1 I think that the qualitative force of the predicate is so prominent that the noun [the·os´] cannot be regarded as definite.” (Journal of Biblical Literature, 1973, pp. 85, 87)"
The Watchtower, August 15th, 1984 Issue, Page 30:
"In the Journal of Biblical Literature (Volume 92, 1973), Philip P. Harner writes: “Perhaps the clause could be translated, ‘the Word had the same nature as God.’” "
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My question to you, Reniaa, is this: What does it mean if John 1:1 actually means that "The Logos has the SAME Nature as God"?
