First of all, this strawman-stuff is getting old. From the Wikipedia-dictionary:
"A straw man argument is a logical fallacy based on misrepresentation of an opponent's position. To "set up a straw man" or "set up a straw-man argument" is to create a position that is easy to refute, then attribute that position to the opponent. A straw-man argument can be a successful rhetorical technique (that is, it may succeed in persuading people) but it is in fact misleading, because the opponent's actual argument has not been refuted."
What you are saying, is exactly the same as the text: That when Jesus use the term The First and The Last, it is different than when Yahweh uses it, because Yahweh uses it in the sense eternal, existing for all eternity, while when Jesus uses it, it means "The First and the Last, the Living One, who was dead", as in "the First one to be ressurected and who now lives forever". Now, this really doesn`t say anything at all, because this alternative meaning of the term "the first and the last" rests upon the halt in Jesus` existence! Now, what I did, was to analyse the text given! In my opinion, the texts basic argument is that Jesus is excluded from fulfilling the outlayed definition of "the first and the last" because he (according to the text) has not been eternal. The halt in Jesus existence (his three days of death) are used as an excuse to introduce this alternative meaning of the expression "the first and the last". This whole "new meaning" of the expression rests on Jesus` death! - and there is nothing in the passage in Rev that indicates that the authors intention is to introduce a new meaning (just because "The Living One, who was dead" follows the expression). Your problem is that you are so brainwashed that you are unable to see the difference between a strawman and an analysis.
You have not done anything with the view presented on the speaker change in 22:16
I have no problem with the speaker change there. When I reacted about the "speaker change", it was because you made it seem like there was a speaker change in Rev 1.
you have not touched anything further on 22:12 in relation to Isaiah 40:10
I have no problem with that either. "I am the First and the Last" belongs to God, and God alone. All trinitarians will absolutely agree with you on that. And that is part of the reason why they cocnlude that Jesus is part of God. Because he is using this expression too.