Mondo:
It isn't any more important than when others use the words! EIMI takes the function of a simple linking verb. How can you ever imagine that a linking verb has any special theological meaning?
Why not? The origin of the name Yahweh is itself a verb. The point is that "theological meaning" can be applied to any word in given language at any time, it all depends on the authors of the religious texts, and how they use these words. If the authors of the Biblical texts wanted to give EGW EIMI a theological meaning, then that is what they did. The only problem lies in the complexity of the situation that it is a common term used not only by/about God and Jesus, but in other situations too. Now, of course it can`t be proven, but the fact is that "I AM" is used by the Father in the OT all the time, in all the phrases in which he presents himself to his people!
That night the LORD appeared to him and said, "Iam the God of your father Abraham. Do not be afraid, for Iam with you;
There above it stood the LORD, and he said: "Iam the LORD, the God of your father Abraham and the God of Isaac.
And God said to him, "Iam God Almighty.
Then he said, "Iam the God of your father, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac and the God of Jacob." At this, Moses hid his face, because he was afraid to look at God.
God said to Moses, "Iam who Iam . This is what you are to say to the Israelites: 'IAM has sent me to you.' "
"Therefore, say to the Israelites: 'Iam the LORD, and I will bring you out from under the yoke of the Egyptians.
And I will bring you to the land I swore with uplifted hand to give to Abraham, to Isaac and to Jacob. I will give it to you as a possession. Iam the LORD.' "
And the Egyptians will know that Iam the LORD when I stretch out my hand against Egypt and bring the Israelites out of it."
This is what the LORD says: By this you will know that Iam the LORD :
"I have heard the grumbling of the Israelites. Tell them, 'At twilight you will eat meat, and in the morning you will be filled with bread. Then you will know that Iam the LORD your God.' "
etc...(I only got to the beginning of Exodus), the list goes on and on and on. A jew or greek reads these words, and every time God himself speaks to the people and presents himself, these words make a significant impression on the reader. Eventually, the phrase I AM, when used by GOD, takes on a special meaning to the reader, and it is this meaning that is the background of G-John. A greek or jew at that time was more than capable of distinguishing between the phrase EGW EIMI when used by others, in "everyday-speak", and when it is used by God, or someone claiming to be God, or equal with God! And this is exactly what the jews believed Jesus was doing, as is shown elsewhere in John:
John 5:16-18 (ESV): And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because he was doing these things on the Sabbath. But Jesus answered them, "My Father is working until now, and I am working."This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath, but he was even calling God his own Father,making himself equal with God.
Why then do they react in the same way (trying to kill him) when he says EGW EIMI in John 8:58? Because his EGW EIMI was a known phrase to greek-speaking jews as a phrase bearing within it a reference to deity, when used in a certain manner, and (as you yourself admit), a reference to everlasting existence.
Of course, I can`t prove this, but this is the background for a 2000-yearold christian tradition on the view on Jesus` words in John 8 and elsewhere. And I believe they are right. You insist on talking about grammar, but grammar is only half the picture. What is even more important than grammar, is how the jews and greeks interpreted/recognised and were familiar with, certain phrases and words. In other words: context.