First, The quote is itself a very loose Greek LXX translation of the Hebrew, Ps 22:2, "My God, I call by day, and Thou answerest not, And by night, and there is no silence to me.". So any claim to fulfillment of prophesy is already quite strained.
Second, the passage appears early in NT manuscript variants as "Why have you reviled me?" Which begs the question, why? Why would a Christian scribe alter the text? The scribe's motive might possibly explain its original intent. Early Gnostic Christians quoted this verse and understood it as support for the doctrine that the man Jesus was a vessel for a Divine entity that left as Jesus was dying. The popular Gospel of Peter words the quote as: "My power, O power, you have left me."
So Orthodox scribes simply sidestepped the theological debate by altering the text to "why...reviled me?" Is it possible the original writer of Mark had intended something like what the Gnostic Christians understood? We may never know.
It is interesting that the revision of Mark known as Matthew included this passage verbatim but the later revision called Luke dropped it. Perhaps by then the controversy was already brewing.