Can anyone remember the reasoning The Watchtower gave for Jesus speaking these words? If you have a reference that would be even better!
"My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?"
to fulfil a prophecy in the psalms. A self fulfilling, controlled "messianic prophecy, mentioned in connection / contrast with those he could not, like the dividing of the looted clothing, the intact leg bones.
Thanks FF Ghost!
Wow, the Wt. "guesses" are atrocious. Every saved Christian knows this answer because it verifies the reason WHY THEY ARE SAVED.
It is probably the most beautiful scripture in all the bible:
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him. 2 Cor. 5: 21
A just, righteous and holy God has no fellowship with sin. When God made Jesus to actually be sin, he was forced to abandon him so he could die.
This is a scripture you will not hear at the KH and is the one teaching buried the deepest under WT clap trap to hide it because this is the central feature of the exchange offered to "whosoever" in the New Covenant - Jesus becomes your sin, and You get clothed with the righteousness and perfection of Jesus.
Jesus trades places with each person....who wants it.
Your abandonment / estrangement from God in exchange for sonship.
I took the deal. It is a very good deal with little downside in the overall scheme of things.
Is it possible that Jesus finally realized that the jig was up!
From memory the Gospel writer tells it that there was some doubt among the eye witnesses as to what Jesus actually said, so analysis seems a bit silly.
If these words were actually spoken by Jesus, then Pistolpete's explanation makes sense.
The Poster "waton" above points to the real nature of the Gospels, i.e Fictions to make it seem that Jesus fulfilled what the Gospel Writers perceived to be Messianic prophecies in the O.T, and which, in the main were not of course.
In agreement with Phizzy, I am of the opinion that he did not say these words at all, but the story and quotation were added into the gospel to show ‘fulfillment’ of a prophecy, since it is a direct quote from the OT.
First, The quote is itself a very loose Greek LXX translation of the Hebrew, Ps 22:2, "My God, I call by day, and Thou answerest not, And by night, and there is no silence to me.". So any claim to fulfillment of prophesy is already quite strained.
Second, the passage appears early in NT manuscript variants as "Why have you reviled me?" Which begs the question, why? Why would a Christian scribe alter the text? The scribe's motive might possibly explain its original intent. Early Gnostic Christians quoted this verse and understood it as support for the doctrine that the man Jesus was a vessel for a Divine entity that left as Jesus was dying. The popular Gospel of Peter words the quote as: "My power, O power, you have left me."
So Orthodox scribes simply sidestepped the theological debate by altering the text to "why...reviled me?" Is it possible the original writer of Mark had intended something like what the Gnostic Christians understood? We may never know.
It is interesting that the revision of Mark known as Matthew included this passage verbatim but the later revision called Luke dropped it. Perhaps by then the controversy was already brewing.
The script writers must have gotten the plot wrong. It is very unlikely that the lead character would quote an ancient text verbatim, in his last breath, to prove he was fulfilling prophecy. unless
he really was worried about his credibility.
I like the way it left open the identity of the deity ,though. .
It is hard to tell as the writing of the Gospels is an exercise in putting the cart before the horse. When you look at the chronological order of when the books of the New Testament were written it is possible that the quote is not a quote at all. In other words, once the divinity of Jesus was accepted by some Christians the writers added the quote to the story where it eventually showed up in the Gospels.