Hi please can someone explain this in laymans terms for me ....
Not really. You get it pretty good. It doesn't really make sense when you break it down. Here's the closest I ever came to "laymans terms" :
A dream in the book of Daniel is supposed to have a second fulfillment indicating the time period when Jesus starts his rule on the earth, allegedly the year 1914. That is based on their claims of when events started before that dream took place and when they must come to an end by applying an unrelated rule from some other unrelated part of the Bible.
Really, it was worked backwards to come up with the long complicated current doctrine. But they already had chosen 1914. Originally, Charles Taze Russell believed that Christ had returned invisibly in 1874, and that he had been ruling from the heavens since that date. He predicted that a period known as the "Gentile Times" would end in 1914 (which was "one generation" of 40 years past 1874), and that Christ would take power of Earth's affairs at that time. He interpreted the outbreak of World War I as the beginning of Armageddon. He thought this would mark both a gradual deterioration of civilized society, and a climactic multi-national attack on a restored Israel accompanied by worldwide anarchy.
You can wiki search for "The Great Disappointment" and "Charles Taze Russell" to see the beginnings of these ideas. But the current doctrine was developed to support 1914 after the end of the world did not happen. They pulled silly Bible rules out of whatever they needed to arrive at 1914.