"Based on that, do you find it reasonable that when Jesus and his apostles did quote from the Hebrew Scriptures that they would have said the name?"
If Jesus did use God's name when speaking to his followers (one version is Jehovah), I am surprised that those recording his words did not put that very important info in their writings, not just letting the reader infer that they must have, or logically they must have, evidently they must have heard Jesus use God's name. The words, logically and evidently and must have are only some of the words that the WTS uses to add info to the bible account, especially when the bible does not say it. If God wanted to be direct, he would have inspired these men through the holy spirit to put the name in the record.
If it were so important to make god's name known, using it in the bible record would be the best way, for the people then and all the people after that read those bible accounts.
Examples of evidently and "must have" being used
Did she know of the prophecy about Bethlehem as the birthplace of the Messiah? The Bible does not say. We cannot rule out the possibility, for the fact was evidently common knowledge among religious leaders and even people in general. (Matt. 2:1-7; John 7:40-42)
Early in the trip, while still in Pamphylia, Mark had left his assignment and gone home to Jerusalem. The Bible does not say why he left, but the apostle Paul evidently viewed Mark’s action as irresponsible. Paul might have had questions about Mark’s dependability.
However, when considering the account at Genesis 9:20-27, one does well to realize that nowhere in His Word did Jehovah God register condemnation of Noah because of this incident. Of course, this does not mean that God winks at drunkenness, for the Bible shows that this is not true. (Prov. 23:20, 21, 29-35; 1 Cor. 6:9, 10) Yet, in Noah’s case Jehovah may have taken extenuating factors into consideration. The record of this matter in the book of Genesis is brief and the incident is not dealt with elsewhere in the Scriptures. Evidently, though, Noah was unwittingly overtaken as a result of drinking the wine, whether out of weariness or because of a heavy heart or for some other reason, the Bible does not say.
Let me add this WT quote:
Jesus himself clearly indicated that he used the divine name. For instance, he said in prayer to his Father: “I have made your name manifest to the men you gave me out of the world. . . . I have made your name known to them and will make it known.” (John 17:6, 26) Moreover, Jesus taught his followers to pray: “Our Father in the heavens, let your name be sanctified.” (Matt. 6:9) Why would Jesus make those statements unless he had used God’s name?
---Why then did the writers of the Gospel, not directly use God's name in the bible? Why would it be necessary for the WTS or anyone infer that he did (must have)?