quote - It cannot be a period of Babylonian domination because we cannot determine a precise year as a beginning of that Period. - end quote
First, Who do you mean when you say "we cannot determine", who is WE?
[Isaiah’s Prophecy 1 p. 253-254 par. 21 – He says: “These nations will have to serve the king of Babylon seventy years.” (Jeremiah 25:8-17, 22, 27) True, the island-city of Tyre is not subject to Babylon for a full 70 years, since the Babylonian Empire falls in 539 B.C.E. Evidently, the 70 years represents the period of Babylonia’s greatest domination—when the Babylonian royal dynasty boasts of having lifted its throne even above “the stars of God.” (Isaiah 14:13) Different nations come under that domination at different times. But at the end of 70 years, that domination will crumble.]
Without trying to evade answering directly, please answer the following:
Is the WTS there citing verse 11 and claiming that those 70 years "represent the period of Babylonia’s greatest domination"?
Is the WTS there stating that at the END of those 70 years that that domination comes to its end (will crumble)?
Did the WTS there point out that Babylon came to an END (fell/crumbled) in 539?
If that domination came to an end in 539 and that was the end of the 70 years, then what precise year did the 70 years begin?
I know you will not answer these questions precisely and I know your brain can't fathom that this one WTS excerpt actually shows the correct view of those 70 years (FOR Babylon/NATIONS to serve) and when they are (609-539). It agrees with history and totally contradicts the WTS's spin on their false view of when those 70 years are (607-537).
Let me ask you this though about the other end of this whole argument which is 1914. Do you believe that the 7th trumpet blew in 1914? (Rev 11:15)