Earlier today I was flipping through some of the pages of the Byington Bible to see if there were any outstandingly insightful wordings in it which would cause me to choose to keep that Bible instead of selling it. When I read John 16:28 in the Bible I found such wording and I was stunned, for such wording seem to me to support the idea of the gospel of John (that is, the gospel which is attributed to John) claiming Jesus literally "came out of the Father" and that thus Jesus is God in the sense of being a part of God the Father. Such a view gives us valuable context to interpreting John 1:1, John 20:28, and a number of other verses in the gospel which is attributed to John.
John 16:28 according to the Byington Bible (The Bible in Living English) seems to be saying that Jesus claimed he literally "came out of" God, and thus conveying that Jesus is a part of Yahweh God. Furthermore, verses 29- 30 say that Jesus' apostles said that Jesus was speaking then plainly instead of speaking figuratively, thus supporting such a literal interpretation of literally having come of the Father's very being. Around the 1st century (and of some Christians for at least a century or two later) there was the view that Jesus was an effluence from YHWH God and also the view that Jesus was begotten of the Father in the sense of literally coming out of the Father's being. Such views naturally lead to the idea of Jesus thus also being YHWH God and might be the view that Paul had in mind when wrote in Romans 10:9-13 about confessing Jesus as Kyrios/Lord [possibly meaning YHWH] and calling on name of Jesus in the sense of calling on "the name of Lord" [possibly meaning YHWH].
In John 16:28 the Byington Bible says Jesus said "I came out of the Father" and "have come into the world" and that Jesus was "leaving the world" and "going to the Father's presence. That translation gives much more of parallelism and symmetry of ideas that do most other Bible translations which don't use the phrasing of "came out of" or "came forth from" (and instead say "came from" which is less specific in meaning). The NKJV says "came forth from" and a dictionary I have says the archaic expression of "forth from" means "out of".
Even John 16:28 in the interlinear reading of the WT's 1985 Kingdom Interlinear says "I came out of the Father" (though despite such the 1984 NWT says "came out from" instead of "came out of".
John 16:28 in the 1901 ASV and the 1898 ARV (and the 1885 RV) say "I came out from the Father ...".
See also John 13:3 in the above mentioned Bible translations regarding the phrase "came out from".
However, note the following. In John 16:28 the Greek text in the Emphatic Diaglott does not have exactly the same wording as the Greek text complied by Westcott and Hort (the Greek text in the Kingdom Interlinear). The interlinear English translation in the Diaglott at John 16:28 says "out from" instead of "out of" and the Greek word there translated "out from" is different than the Greek word in the Kingdom Interlinear which has the interlinear translation of "out of". As a result, the translation differences in the various Bibles pertaining to the above could be due to those Bibles using different Greek texts.
