Who is Jesus? Is he God?

by BelieverInJesus 396 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Mondo1
    Mondo1

    I would agree that the phrasing Isaiah 43:10 and John 8:24, 28 are very similar, but in context they are entirely different references.

    Psalm 90:2 (89:12) is indeed very similar, but here the Psalm gives us apo tou aiwnos, which lends to the thought of eternal, a thought lacking in John 8:58.

    As for the adverb in Isaiah, keep in mind that the adverbial expression that is used in constructions such as found at John 8:58 are limited to the past, so I don't see 46:4 relating. For 46:4 specifically, the antecedent for hu seems to fall back to 45:21, "a just God and Savior." He is that one in contrast to the idols spoken of in verses 1-3, which are a burden to their followers and unable to save.

    Mondo

  • Outaservice
    Outaservice

    I haven't read through all these posts, but please just tell me, who's winning?

    Outaservice

  • UnDisfellowshipped
    UnDisfellowshipped

    I am going to reply in a more organized way. First, I am going to comment on the discussion between a group of Pharisees and Jesus in John Chapter 8, then I will post follow-up comments on all of the other topics being discussed in this thread:

    My Comments on John Chapter 8, in regards to Jesus Christ's use of EGW EIMI ("I AM"):

    * In John 8:21, Jesus, in essence, condemned this group of Pharisees to Gehenna ("Hell") by saying that they would 'die in their sins,' or, in other words, they would die without their sins being forgiven by God. Note: The Pharisees did not try to stone Jesus for saying this.

    * In John 8:23, Jesus told the Pharisees that He came from above (heaven), and that they were of the world (earthly sinners). Note: The Pharisees did not try to stone Jesus for saying this.

    * In John 8:24, Jesus says to this group of Pharisees, " unless you believe that I am [egw eimi], you will die in your sins," or die and go to Gehenna/Hell. The Pharisees did not yet know who He was claiming to be, so they asked Him: "Who are you anyway?" (Amplified Bible) Jesus replied: "I am exactly what I have been telling you from the first." Note: The Pharisees did not try to stone Jesus for saying these things.

    * In John 8:26, Jesus told this group of Pharisees that He had a lot more to say to them to judge and condemn them of. Note: The Pharisees did not try to stone Jesus for saying this.

    * In John 8:34-36, Jesus says that the Jews are slaves to sin and will die in their sins unless they come to Jesus for forgiveness and salvation. Note: The Pharisees did not try to stone Jesus for saying this.

    * In John 8:42, Jesus said that He "proceeded (came forth) from God [out of His very presence]." (Amplified Bible) Yet, this group of Jews did NOT try to stone Jesus even for claiming to have proceeded from God and come down from Heaven!

    * In John 8:44, Jesus said that this group of Pharisees and other Jews were sons of Satan and that they practice the desires of the Devil. Jesus then said that the Devil was a murderer and a liar. Basically Jesus was implying that the Pharisees were murderers and liars like Satan their father. Note: The Pharisees did not even try to stone Jesus for saying this.

    * In John 8:46, Jesus claimed to be sinless. Note: The Pharisees did not try to stone Jesus for saying this.

    * In John 8:47, Jesus said to these Pharisees and Jews, "You are not from God." Note: The Pharisees did not try to stone Jesus for saying this.

    * In John 8:48, the Pharisees thought Jesus was possessed by a demon, but they still did not try to stone Him.

    * In John 8:51, Jesus claimed that if the Pharisees and Jews would believe in Him and His words, they would never die. The Pharisees thought Jesus was possessed by a demon, but they still did not try to stone Him.

    * In John 8:53, the Jews asked Jesus the following questions:

    1:) "Are you greater than our father, Abraham? He died, and all the prophets died!"
    2:) "Who do you make Yourself out to be?"

    So, the Pharisees wanted to know WHO this Man claimed to be, this Man who proclaimed that He came down from Heaven from The Father's presence, had the authority to forgive sins committed against God, and claimed to be sinless and to be the Giver of eternal life. In the worldview and belief system of the Pharisees and Jews in the 1st Century, the ONLY One who could do those things was YHWH, Jehovah, the "I AM WHO I AM." But still, they were not 100% sure of WHO Jesus was claiming to be, so before stoning Him, they wanted to make absolutely sure what He was claiming about Himself. That is why they asked Him again, "WHO DO YOU MAKE YOURSELF OUT TO BE?"

    The Jews had to be extremely careful about trying to stone someone, because under Roman Law it was illegal for the Jews to carry out the death penalty themselves. The Jews didn't just go around throwing stones at everyone who disagreed with them, or who taught a different religion. From the information above, it is clear that this particular group of Pharisees was relatively tolerant in their reaction toward Jesus, especially when Jesus called them sons of Satan, murderers, and liars.

    In John Chapter 8, the Jews ask Jesus twice "Who are You?" and once they ask Him "Are you greater than Abraham?" The main thrust of the discussion is that the Jews are trying to find out WHO Jesus is.

    The Jews had been divided over WHO Jesus was -- some thought He was John the Baptist raised from the dead, others thought He was Elijah, or Jeremiah, or another ancient prophet raised from the dead. Some thought He was the Messiah and/or The Prophet. Perhaps some even thought He was an angel, since He claimed to come down from Heaven.

    The Jews wanted to know for sure if Jesus was claiming to be one of those ancient prophets, or perhaps an ancient prophet or man of God who lived before Abraham (such as Enoch), or if Jesus was claiming to someone even greater than the greatest person in Jewish history -- Abraham, the one whom 1st Century Jews viewed as their spiritual father. The Jews had the utmost regard for Abraham during the 1st Century.

    * In John 8:58, Jesus told the Pharisees, "Truly, Truly I say to you, before Abraham came into being, I AM."

    If Jesus was only claiming to have existed from before Abraham's day until the present, how would that have answered the Jews' question of "Who do You make Yourself out to be"? If Jesus only told them, "I existed before Abraham was born," that would not have answered anything. In the Jews' minds, Jesus could have been claiming to be an angel, some other heavenly being (cherub, seraph, archangel, fallen angel), or He could have even been claiming to be a man of God from the days of Abraham (perhaps even Melchizedek) raised up from the dead, or He could have been claiming to be God Almighty Himself. Or, based on what Jesus had said previously about the people who believe in Jesus never dying, they might have thought He was insane and claiming that He was a human being who had lived for thousands of years on earth.

    Look at all the confusion that would have caused. If Jesus had only said " I was alive before Abraham was born," it seems very likely to me that this group of Jews' first reaction would have been to ASK Jesus MORE questions about His identity in order to determine what exactly He meant, NOT to immediately pick up stones to kill Jesus with (and thus, break Roman Law and risk being punished by the Romans).

    Notice above once again that this particular group of Pharisees and Jews was relatively tolerant and patient with Jesus, even when they thought He was insane, possessed by demons, and when He called them sons of Satan. What would have caused this group to all of a sudden grab some stones and try to kill someone?

    It is my belief that the only thing that would have provoked that kind of rage from this group of Jews would have been Jesus claiming to be Yahweh ("I AM") in the Flesh. When the Pharisees saw Jesus, they saw a poor carpenter's Son who did not follow the traditions of the elders, condemned the Pharisees, (in their view) did not follow the Sabbath, did not train at the religious schools, and ate with harlots, sinners, and tax collectors, and told people to pay taxes to Rome.

    What do you think would have gone through their minds if they heard Him claim to be Yahweh, the Great I Am Who I Am?

    Why else would the Jews have risked breaking Roman Law to stone Jesus all of a sudden? Why would the Jews wait through all of Jesus' other statements, and then, Jesus says EGW EIMI and BAM -- the Jews grab rocks to kill Christ with? How do you explain that?

    The Jews knew exactly what Jesus was claiming. That's why they took immediate action to punish this (in their eyes) gross sin of blasphemy (it would have been blasphemy for anyone besides Jesus).

    But, if we accept the argument(s) which I have seen set forth by non-Trinitarians (such as the argument from Mondo1), and we accept the claim that Jesus was not claiming to be God in John 8:58, then we are left with the fact that Jesus would have gone through this long, drawn out discussion with the Jews, where the Jews keep asking Jesus "WHO ARE YOU", just to finally end the discussion by saying , basically, "I have been alive for a long, long time."

    If Jesus had only said "I existed before Abraham came into being and I still exist," then most likely the Jews would have continued the discussion and would have kept asking more questions about Christ's identity. After all, it was blasphemy under Jewish Law to falsely claim to be God or equal to God, but probably not blasphemy to claim to be an angel or another heavenly being, or even Michael or Gabriel.

    If Jesus was only claiming to be a heavenly messenger of Jehovah in human form, the Pharisees, who believed in angels (see Acts 23:8-9), most likely would not have immediately grabbed stones to kill Jesus with and risk (1) breaking Roman Law, and (2) risk throwing stones at an angel of Jehovah! The Sadduccees might have (they didn't believe in angels), but the Pharisees would not have.

    Also, if you look at all the other times in the Gospels where the Pharisees tried to kill Jesus, there is ONE common theme -- each time the Jews thought Jesus was claiming to be God and/or to be equal to God. (See John 5:18; John 10:30-33; John 10:38-39; Luke 22:67-71; John 19:7).

    Why would John 8:58-59 be any different?

  • Mondo1
    Mondo1
    I was mistaken, should have checked my commentary first. Yes, the phrase in LXX is hO WN APESTALKEN ME PROS hUMAS. But that does not change the following: EGW EIMI is an important part of the passages in the OT in which Yahweh presents himself , in various forms, I am The Being, I am your God, I am the God of Abraham, etc. The variations have "I AM" as basis, and when Jesus use this phrase, the jews attempt to stone him. Why do you think that is? Because he claimed to be someone that came from heaven? Why do none of the angels popping up around the OT receive the same treatment?

    It isn't any more important than when others use the words! EIMI takes the function of a simple linking verb. How can you ever imagine that a linking verb has any special theological meaning?

    The Jews didn't attempt to stone him for "I am" statements. He made plenty of them. Look at John 8:24 and 28 and tell me why they didn't attempt to stone him there. The basis for stoning is found in the full expression of verse 58, because he was claiming an existence that only God could grant for himself, and yet to them, he was not at all from God, so he was taking it on himself. He was a man, they knew who his human father was, as it was accepted.

    Don`t be ridicolous. All the other "different people" never claimed to be the son of God, the Messiah, performed miracles, rode into Jerusalem on a donkey etc. It`s a matter of context. You know this, but you resort to ridicule. Good for you.

    So special pleading eh? None of those other things have to do with the words EGW EIMI. Two very simple, very common words. If you want to argue for a special theological meaning, the burden of proof is upon you to demonstrate it.

    They don`t give justification?

    " The fact that the Jews attempted to stone Jesus after hearing the words _I am_ shows that it suggested to them the divine name so translated in the LXX version of Ex. iii.14." -- R.V.G. Tasker, Tyndale Commentary on John (Downers Grove, IL: IVP, 1960).

    No, they don't. That is a huge assumption, and it is without justification in the text. One did not have to claim to be God to be stoned, one only had to claim something in opposition to God. For Jesus, he was claiming an existence for himself, that he had in their eyes taken for himself, that only God could give. This type of claim was viewed as a challange to God and blasphemy.

    2000 years of christianity and the overwhelming majority of past and present scholars and Bible commentators says that the form of Ex 3:14 is shared with John 8:58. You and your little Watchtower can scream and yell all you want about the lack of a predicative, but it doesn`t change a thing.
    Actually, it seems Trinitarian scholars are starting to turn away. For example White, in The Forgotten Trinity, admits the only way to get any type of connection one must go "through Isaiah to Exodus 3." In other words, while he still makes a connection, he admits there is not a direct link.

    Further though, it is a simple matter of grammar, and grammar seems to be the thing you want to avoid, because the grammar of John 8:58 is entirely different than anything we see in Exodus 3:14, giving EIMI a completely different sense than EHYEH.

    Mondo

  • UnDisfellowshipped
    UnDisfellowshipped

    Also, in John Chapter 6, Jesus had told another group of Jews that He had come down from Heaven:

    John 6:41-42 (ESV):

    So the Jews grumbled about him, because he said, "I am the bread that came down from heaven." They said, "Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How does he now say, 'I have come down from heaven' ?"

    John 6:66

    (ESV): After this many of his disciples turned back and no longer walked with him.

    Why was the reaction in John Chapter 6 ("they turned back and no longer walked with Him") so much different from the reaction in John Chapter 8 ("they picked up stones to kill Him")?

    Obviously, the Jews in John Chapter 8 did NOT think Jesus was only claiming to be a heavenly messenger in human form. They thought He was claiming to be God. Thus the stoning.

  • Mondo1
    Mondo1

    UD,

    Your entire line of reasoning is faulty, for it assumes that Jesus is answering something he isn't in verse 58. The question you claim they are answering is found in verse 53, while the question being answered is found in verse 57. It deals with age and existence, not identity.

    I will turn your attention to the comments of the grammarian Kenneth McKay on the meaning and translation of verse 58. "The verb 'to be' is used differently, in what is presumably its basic meaning of 'be in existence', in John 8:58: prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi, which would be most naturally translated 'I have been in existence since before Abraham was born', if it were not for the obsession with the simple words 'I am'. If we take the Greek words in their natural meaning, as we surely should, the claim to have been in existence for so long is in itself a staggering one, quite enough to provoke the crowd's violent reaction."

    Mondo

  • Mondo1
    Mondo1

    UD,

    I see you are making more unjustified leaps. In fact, they did start speaking against him as we see in verses 41-42, but he did not make the direct claim of the possession of something only granted by God as in 8:58, and further the context leading up this event was not present in 6. Hence they did not try and stone him.

    Mondo

  • UnDisfellowshipped
    UnDisfellowshipped

    Mondo1 said:

    How can you ever imagine that a linking verb has any special theological meaning?

    I can ask the very same question about any other word -- for example:

    How can you ever imagine that the Hebrew word Hayah has any special theological meaning?

    How can you ever imagine that the common name Yeshua has any special theological meaning?

    How can you ever imagine that the Hebrew word Netster (Isa. 11:1) has any special theological meaning?

    How can you ever imagine that the Hebrew word Tsur Tsur (Due. 32:4) has any special theological meaning?

  • Mondo1
    Mondo1

    They don't have "special theological meanings!" That is the very point. They have meanings. Those meanings can be made use of, but they didn't suddenly invent new and unheard of meanings.

  • UnDisfellowshipped
    UnDisfellowshipped

    Mondo1 said:

    the direct claim of the possession of something only granted by God

    Where did you get that belief from? Do you have any proof or evidence showing that the Jews normally stoned people for "the direct claim of the possession of something only granted by God"? Can you show me a law or a rule that they had about this?

    But, let's say you are correct on that assumption, for the sake of argument, then how do you explain the following verses in John Chapter 8, where Jesus had PREVIOUSLY made "direct claims of the possession of something only granted by God":

    John 8:24 (ESV):

    I told you that you would die in your sins, for unless you believe that I am he you will die in your sins."

    Jesus told the Pharisees that unless they believed in Him, their sins would not be forgiven. That is a direct claim of the possession of something only granted by God, yet, they did not stone Him. Why?

    John 8:36 (ESV):

    So if the Son sets you free, you will be free indeed.

    Jesus said that HE was the One who could set them free from sin. That is a direct claim of the possession of something only granted by God, yet, they did not stone Him. Why?

    John 8:51 (ESV):

    Truly, truly, I say to you, if anyone keeps my word, he will never see death."

    Jesus said that HE is the One who gives ETERNAL LIFE! That is a direct claim of the possession of something only granted by God, yet, they did not stone Him. Why?

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