When I read it in context it doesn't appear prejudicial. The writer (Paul) isn't saying every Jew is guilty of those things and is to be adversely judged for them.
He is saying that the gentiles suffered from other non-christian gentiles just like christian jews suffered from non-christian jews.
I will say that as usual JosephMalik, you've given me something to think about. I've never quite put together that the first part of verse 16 was referring to James and the circumcision group. I'll have to think on that awhile but it seems plausible and even likely. Especially if you tie this in with Romans 14:2 where Paul talks about those who eat only vegetables as having weak faith.
hmmm...