There is no devil or Satan in the pre-exile OT.
He was borrowed from the Zoroastrian religion in Babylon.
I agree. No casting out of Demons either in the pre-exile OT. After interacting with Babylonians, Persians, Greeks and Romans, then you get demons of blindness, demons of muteness, demons of epilepsy, demons of schizophrenia being cast out. They borrowed the Devil and demons concepts from their godless neighbors.
So why are you using an obscure reference in Rev to interpret the letter of James?
From the time Jesus began his ministry to the destruction of the temple in 70 A.D, the devil was a human system, a human being or an idea standing in opposition to Christ's work. Any one of those would fit the devil in James. Why? James wrote to Jews who were scattered about, fleeing intense persecution. He urged them to endure. Who were the persecutors or opposers (Satans)? It was apostate Jews and Romans. I would point to the devil in James 4 as being a human, human system or sin on the basis of history without alluding to revelation 2:9,10; 3:9,10. Because the OT does not present the devil as a fallen spirit, he would not be the first to come to mind when i read devil in James. It is evident that first century Christians believed in a fallen archenemy which is why we find lots of Devils and demons in the NT. That belief was borrowed from neighbors and was not based on facts.