Again, where does the bible state IMPLICITY that belief in the Trinity is needed for salvation?
Not something that MAY be interpreted that way, but stated plainly ?
As Peter stated in Acts and Paul states many times and so forth, about belief in Jesus being the only thing needed for salvation.
You're making me work too much and have changed the original conversation. If you are looking for something stated plainly you want something explicit, not implict. And everything is subject to interpretation. Nothing specifically says "belief in the Trinity is needed for salvation." And if you ever were a JW you are still thinking like one of them. Too narrowly. That is one of their common ploys, but a habit hard to break.
I can think of a couple off the top of my head. You don't want to read any verse in isloation. It is a process. Jesus said "If you do not believe that I AM you will die in your sins." (Jesus is God). Who is the I AM? The triune God, ie., Father, Son and Holy Spirit. Christians are baptized into his singular name. (Matthew 28:19). Christians must confess that Jesus is Lord. (I forget the verse). Lord is used here to mean God. Which God? The triune God.The word Lord is very significant:
Highly significant is Thomas’ use of “Lord” and the manner in which “Lord” is tied directly to God. Here, Lord refers to God in the supreme sense because there can only be “one Lord” according to Paul at 1 Corinthians 8:6, 7 and Ephesians 4:5. Although Lord (Greek kurios) has a wide application and can apply to men as a title of honor, such a lower meaning of Lord was eventually superceded by the higher meaning after Christ’s resurrection, and this is the meaning employed by Doubting Thomas.
(11) His purpose did not become clear to the disciples until after His resurrection, and the revelation of His Deity consequent thereon. Thomas, when he realized the significance of the presence of a mortal wound in the body of a living man, immediately joined with it the absolute title of Deity, saying, “my Lord and my God,” Jn 20:28. Thereafter, except in Acts 10:4 and Rev. 7:14, there is no record that kurios was ever again used by believers in addressing any save God and the Lord Jesus; cf Acts 2:47 with 4:29, 30.
(12) How soon and how completely the lower meaning had been superseded is seen in Peter’s declaration in his first sermon after the resurrection, “God hath made Him - Lord,” Acts 2:36, and in the house of Cornelius, “He is Lord of all,” Acts 10:36, cf. Deut 10:14; Mt 11:25; Acts 17:24. (Strong and Vine’s, 147)
“The full significance of this association of Jesus with God under the one appellation, “Lord,” is seen when it is remembered that these men belonged to the only monotheistic race in the world. To associate with the Creator one known to be a creature, however exalted, though possible to Pagan philosophers, was quite impossible to a Jew” (ibid., 147, 148 (16).
Next, the Lord is the Spirit, God is the spirit, the Spirit is God. (Romans chapter 8, first part).
It is pieced together like so much of the Bible. There's more but I need to run errands.
Much more information is found here at my site. I hope you have had time to really work your way through this.