Why Jesus didnt address the Father as Jehovah?

by Tino 22 Replies latest jw friends

  • Chalam
    Chalam

    "So now ask yourself, who is that great crowd which no man can number??"

    Easy, those mentioned here.

    John 1:12 (New International Version) Yet to all who received him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God.

    Who is that then? See two verses later.

    14 The Word became flesh and made his dwelling among us.

    All the best,
    Stephen

  • momzcrazy
    momzcrazy

    My comment is made purely on the assumtion that Jesus' father and Jehovah are one and the same.

    Now, I was never allowed to call my dad "Joel". Sir, dad, father, anything but his name.

    Maybe he was reiterating the fact of his close relationship with Jehovah, making it more personal. The people could relate to a father figure, and it fit his illustrations too.

    momz

  • potentialJWconvertswife
    potentialJWconvertswife

    All good points- but the straight to the heart of it fact is this: the word/name Jehovah does not appear in the New Testament at all, because it is a Hebrew word, and the NT wasn't written in Hebrew, but rather in Greek. -Potential

  • Tino
    Tino

    Last reply was almost good, but remember that the language spoken during Jesus time was Hebrew and very little Aramaic not Greek so Jesus did have an opportunity to call the Father "Jehovah", the point is that Jehovah is NOT a name it is a title or attribute of GOD! The Bible was translated into Greek years after the actual events of the New Testament I guess people forgot that! The word "Jehovah" comes from Adonai which is the equivalent to kurios(Lord) in Greek applied to Jesus so Jehovah is not the correct word to use. The Jehovah's Witnesses have created a false argument saying that Jehovah is a aname when it isn't and thats what we need to look at!

  • OnTheWayOut
    OnTheWayOut
    The Jehovah's Witnesses have created a false argument

    Well that's commonplace now. Most every argument of theirs is based on false assumptions
    or mistakes of translation or twists of what people have said. No new revelation there.

    the language spoken during Jesus time was Hebrew and very little Aramaic not Greek so Jesus did have an opportunity to call the Father "Jehovah",

    None of the Gospels were written in Hebrew, nor were they written while Jesus was alive. How
    is anyone to know what Jesus said? There are no audio or video clips.

    The Bible was translated into Greek years after the actual events of the New Testament I guess people forgot that!

    You blew all credibility with that statement. The Greek scriptures are called Greek because they
    were written in Greek, not translated into Greek.

  • Witness 007
    Witness 007

    Jesus was confused since his Father wanted to be refered to as "Jehovah" or "the Fonze" .....it was a bad time with Jesus gone to earth and all......mid-life crisis.

  • Tino
    Tino

    No credibility lost on the statement about what language the bible was translated into because the languages spoken during Jesus time was mostly Hebrew and when they wrote the New Testament they took it from the language that was spoken and it wasn't Greek it was written in Greek , but translated from the language spoken at that perticular time just look into the history!

  • VoidEater
    VoidEater

    Why did Jesus not address the Father as Jehovah?

    Perhaps because he did away with the past paradigm?

  • blondie
    blondie

    It's not respectful to call your father by his first name; and it shows more affection to address his as Father, Papa, Daddy.

    Blondie

  • Warlock
    Warlock

    How do you know he didn't?

    Warlock

Share this

Google+
Pinterest
Reddit