Here's a little trivia some my find interesting. I think generally the WTS comes off as overly prudish when it comes to oral sex or sodomy, but I don't believe that's the case, of if it is, it is qualified and fairly recent. Because in 1956 such things as homosexuality and even bestiality were not grounds for divorce. Only adultery between man and woman!
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Sodomy (or the unnatural intercourse of one male with another male as with a female), Lesbianism (or the homosexual relations between women), and bestiality (or the unnatural sexual relations by man or woman with an animal) are not Scriptural grounds for divorce. They are filthy, they are unclean, and God’s law to Israel condemned to death those committing such misdeeds, thus drastically putting these out of God’s congregation. But such acts are not adultery with the opposite sex, making the unclean person one flesh with another of the opposite sex. (Rom. 1:26-32) Yet there is a penalty of disfellowshiping attached to them. They will keep a Christian out of the heavenly kingdom and out of God’s new world, and that means being destroyed like beasts from all future life. "The minding of the flesh means death," it "means enmity with God, for it is not under subjection to the law of God, nor, in fact, can it be. So those who are in harmony with the flesh cannot please God." They cannot gain the prize of everlasting life from him. (Rom. 8:6-8; 1 Cor. 6:9, 10; Gal. 5:19-21) Such filthy things by a mate may make life unbearable for the clean married person and are grounds for separation only, though some courts grant a divorce on such grounds. Such separation does not free one to remarry and enter thus into adultery. Writes Paul: "To the married people I give instructions, yet not I but the Lord, that a wife should not depart from her husband; but if she should actually depart, let her remain single or else make up again with her husband; and a husband should not leave his wife." (1 Cor. 7:10, 11, NW) Only if one of the separated couple committed adultery under the stress of the separation would there be Scriptural basis for the innocent to procure a divorce and be free to remarry. ("Watchtower" 1956, page 591)
Now, while it is clear there was a disdain for bestiality and homosexuality since those acts were not sufficient grounds for divorce, it suggests that intercourse between a man and a woman not their married partner is even worse, since it didn't qualify for divorce. This was not changed until 1982 when there was a broadened definition for "porneia" that then included homosexuality and bestiality.
Still there is the legal concept of what is ADULTERY. Did President Clinton actually commit adultery by giving the president a personal bacterial wash of his genitalia (saliva is antibacterial, you know...)?
Now there's the issue of adultery being comitted in the case of anal intercourse. I can see that if it was with another man (i.e. a married man sodomizes a male), but it doesn't seem as clear-cut if it was with a woman.
Of course things really get complicated with homosexual "adultery" involving lesbianism. How far do two women have to go before the male husband of either of them considers "adultery" has been committed?
I know personally of a case where the wife of an oversexed elder had fondled and fooled around with several in the congregation including some Bible studies (all other women). The elder was disfellowshipped for "loose conduct," of course, but there was no actual adultery, so the brothers told the sister she couldn't get a divorce. She totally ignored the elders and filed for a divorce anyway, claiming he committed "psychological adultery." He later married out of the truth and she was then legally free to marry as well.
So what is technical "adultery" versus technical "unfaithfulness" sometimes comes into play.
JCanon