Did Jesus Condone "Pederasty"?

by DevonMcBride 23 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • DevonMcBride
    DevonMcBride

    Matthew wrote: "When Jesus arrived in Capernaum, a Roman army captain came and pled with him to come to his home and heal his servant boy who was in bed paralyzed and racked with pain" (Matthew 8:5-6).

    Then Matthew had Jesus say: I haven't seen faith like this in all of Israel?.go home. What you have believed has happened" (Matthew 8:10-13).

    Such a lovely story as told in English. But what does is say in Greek?

    The Greek reading of these verses describe how a Roman soldier asked Jesus to cure his "pais" who lay paralyzed and in great pain. The centurion told Jesus that all he had to do was to say the right words to cure his "pais" and Jesus, praising the centurion did just that. A simple story.

    If the boy in the story had been the centurion's son, then the author would have used the Greek word "uios" for son. If the author of this story wanted to imply that the boy was a slave or servant, than he would have used the Greek word "duolos" (slave). But neither word was used. Instead of "uios" or "duolos", the author of this story used the Greek word "pais", which in this situation implies a young boy kept for sexual pleasures by his adult owner.

    The English word "pederasty" comes from this Greek word "pais". Webster defines pederasty sodomy between males as practiced by a man with a boy.

    In as much as Matthew did not witness the event, he had to rely on hearsay to write this story. Matthew only became a disciple in Chapter 9, not in Chapter 8. But hey, who?s counting?

    Luke, who wasn't there either, tells another story. This centurion had a servant, who "was dear" to him. Dear to him? And instead of being paralyzed and in great agony, as Matthew tells it, the boy was described as being only very sick and near death. Two completely different stories.

    Various translations of the Christian Scriptures have suppressed the sexual component of the term and translated the word simply as: a "servant boy" - "young servant" - "my son" - and "my boy".

    One has to question why the translators had to soften the sexual implications when such activities were common in the Roman and Greek culture. No big deal unless you ask the question, if the author really wanted you to know that the Roman centurion had a "pais" why would the gospel writers change it?

    Why change the truth?

    Simply put, they did not want anyone to realize that Jesus did not condemn the practice of an adult male having sex with a minor boy, just overlooked it.

  • Yerusalyim
    Yerusalyim

    Can you say "KNUCKLEHEAD" (thought I'd better edit that...)

    A cursory study of the greek reveals that Pais is used for either boy or girl depending on the article used, and that in cases such as the one you point out above it would be used for a highly regarded servant (or slave) for which the master had great affection. The sexual connotation you wish to apply simply doesn't fit.

  • metatron
    metatron

    Paul's warnings about "men kept for unnatural purposes" or catamites reveals that this was a common practise in Roman

    times. I don't think that Jesus "condoned" this but rather realized that life back then was often brutal, nasty and short - and didn't

    want to make things worse. I understand that Romans literally celebrated having sex with children in their pagan festivals.

    Keep in mind too, that infanticide was also common and that the Romans thought that Christians were peculiar for objecting

    to live babies being left at communal garbage dumps to die of exposure.

    Sometimes you have to be simply amazed that the human race has actually gotten as far as it has. So many people have no

    concept of how horrid life was for most of their ancestors.

    metatron

  • Yerusalyim
    Yerusalyim

    Meta,

    Not sure where you're getting your info, but this sounds more like practices of the Greeks. The closest festival I know of that celebrates wierd sex is the Rape of the Sabine...but, I've been wrong before.

    Also, sex with kids was NOT condoned by the Romans as far as I can tell, though the marriage age for girls was mid teens.

    If I'm wrong direct me to sources.

  • Elsewhere
    Elsewhere

    Sounds like an article from a NAMBLA site trying to justify having sex with kids.. "Someone else did it a few thousand years ago, therefore it's ok for me to do it". The same could be said of slavery... but that does not make slavery ok.

  • franklin J
    franklin J

    In my studies of Ancient Rome; the Romans put a very high regard on "family", or what we would call the traditional family unit. Ancestry and linneage were imperative to having any kind of social or political position; children were highly regarded. The Patricians had arranged marriages for their children signed and sealed in early childhood. The ancient world considered girls of marrying age when she could "procreate". Usually early teens.

    Child sacrifice was OUTLAWED for any subject State of the Roman World ( and the Roman subjugation included the known world). Rome tolerated all conquered lands religions, and allowed them to continue; except child sacrifice.

    One reason why Carthage was destroyed by Rome was the insistance on firstborn sacrifice.

  • minimus
    minimus

    Whew! You Italians!!......It seems Yeru is on the mark here. This thread seems confusing as to whether there is any sympathy for this alleged practice.

  • Corvin
    Corvin
    Luke, who wasn't there either, tells another story. This centurion had a servant, who "was dear" to him. Dear to him? And instead of being paralyzed and in great agony, as Matthew tells it, the boy was described as being only very sick and near death. Two completely different stories.

    How exactly could being paralyzed and in great agony not also be described as being very sick and near death? I don't see the contradiction. The two states described do not strike me as all that different or contradictory. Could the paison not have been both paralyzed, in great agony and very sick and near death?

    I thought sodomy of a child in the roman culture was forbade. If the dude was a pedarest, I don't think he would be bragging about it since the practice was frowned upon.

  • SixofNine
    SixofNine

    I seem to recall hearing that this was a common practice among Romans.

  • SixofNine
    SixofNine

    I looked up catamite:

Share this

Google+
Pinterest
Reddit