Troublesome Trinity Verses Part 10

by hooberus 126 Replies latest watchtower beliefs

  • Earnest
    Earnest

    hooberus ,

    Throughout this thread you have continued to refer to scripture in Hebrews 1 as evidence that Jesus could not be Michael the achangel because it contrasts the Son and the angels. Dean Porter discussed this earlier in the thread (10-Oct-03 21:02 GMT) and said:

    However , put your objective head on for a moment. IF the Son, the LOGOS was a High Ranking Angel like a Seraphim then he would be superior to the Angels who are the lowest ranked Bene Ha Elohim. Yes !

    By the way , the Son's superiority is contrasted by his Sonship. Yet, as I have just observed, the Angels were Bene Ha Elohim and were thus themselves by their very nature SONS of God.

    The point is that the Son Jesus is the ONLY-BEGOTTEN SON. His Sonship is superior to the Angels but they are both Sons.

    Your response to this has been that when it refers to the angels in Hebrews 1 it must include cherubs, seraphs, archangels because it is contrasting the nature of the angels and that of the Son, and not their function. However, that is not what Hebrews says. It says that he is better than the angels...because he has inherited a name more excellent than theirs. The fact that the spirit nature of angels is contrasted with the fleshly nature of men in Hebrews 2:7,9 does not indicate that there is a distinction in the nature of the Son and the angels (which is spirit). To say they do not have the same specific substance nature is not a scriptural term but a Platonic term used by Athanasius and some of his supporters to describe the relationship between God and Christ.

    The fact is that we know very little of the spirit realm. For example, you referred to 1 Corinthians 15:39 to show that there are different types of flesh. It says:

    Not all flesh is the same flesh, but there is one of mankind, and there is another fleh of cattle, and another flesh of birds, and another of fish.

    But it then goes on to speak of heavenly bodies, and it says (vss. 40,41):

    And there are heavenly bodies, and earthly bodies; but the glory of the heavenly bodies is one sort, and that of the earthly bodies is a different sort. The glory of the sun is one sort, and the glory of the moon is another, and the glory of the stars is another; in fact, star differs from star in glory.

    I am not quite sure what this tells us of the spirit realm, or whether it just refers to the physical "heavenly bodies". But as the following discussion is on the resurrection I think not. So, then, it would seem that seraphs, cherubs, archangels all have a different "glory". So do those who are resurrected just as it says (vs 42): "So also is the resurrection of the dead". They seem to have the same "glory" as Jesus because Paul says (vs.48) "As the one made of dust is, so those made of dust are also; and as the heavenly one is, so those who are heavenly are also". How then does the nature of those who are resurrected differ from the angels, or the cherubs, seraphs or archangels ? Scripture is simply not specific about this but just as star differs fom star in glory but they share the same "nature", I suggest it is reasonable to believe the same is true of the spirit realm. Thus the first-begotten Son has a superior name to the angels, he has a higher rank, he has a greater "glory". This is neither evidence for nor against his being an archangel but is about his being exulted "more than your partners".

    Let me put it a different way. You have accepted that Isaiah 9:6 (LXX) speaks of him as "Angel of great counsel" and have said you understand that is referring to his function as a messenger. Yet to speak of him as archangel is also referring to a function he performs as leader of the angels. Why is the one function more acceptable than the other ? You have said that "I don't think that Revelation 12:7 should be applied to Christ based on a similarity in word structure to 2 Thessalonians 1;7-8". Yet John uses similar language of both Michael and Christ in Revelation, as leader of the angels.

    And war broke out in heaven: Michael and his angels battled with the dragon, and the dragon and its angels battled but it did not prevail, neither was a place found for them any longer in heaven. So down the great dragon was hurled, the original serpent, the one called Devil and Satan, who is misleading the entire inhabited earth; he was hurled down to the earth, and his angels were hurled down with him. - 12:7-9

    And I saw the heaven opened, and look! a white horse. And the one seated upon it is called Faithful and True, and he judges and carries on war in righteouseness...and the name he is called is The Word of God. Also, thearmies that were in heaven were following him on white horses...And I saw the wild beast and the kings of the earth and their armies gathered together to wage the war with the one seated on the horse and with his army...And I saw an angel coming down out of heaven with the key of the abyss and a great chain in his hand. And he seized the dragon, the original serpent, who is the Devil and Satan, and bound him for a thousand years. - 19:11,13,14,19; 20:1,2

    Kenneson,

    So what is both Phil. and Hebrews saying? It is this. Jesus, who had limited himself in his humanity (Heb. 2:9) is no longer so (Heb. 1:4) He returns to the Father as the Exalted One, which is what he was in his PRE-EXISTENCE. - Kenneson, 27-Oct-03 23:55 GMT.

    Philippians 2:5-11 says that Christ humbled himself and became obedient as far as death and "for this very reason [dio - through which] also God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every name". It seems clear to me that Paul is saying Christ was exalted to a superior position to that which he previously had before humbling himself. It is hardly a reward of his obedience ("for this reason") to merely give back to him what he had given up. No, he was "exalted to a superior position". This ties in with what Hebrews says, that he "became better than the angels", "inherited a more excellent name", "was anointed with the oil of exultation more than your partners".

    Earnest

  • Kenneson
    Kenneson

    Earnest,

    In Phil. 2:6 Jesus already existed in God's form. That being the case, what did he have to seize? This tells us that he already possessed exalted status, but regardless, he did not use it for selfish ends. But rather that he rendered himself powerless--exactly as a slave is powerless? Did not the Godlike and hence immortal One take on full human existence with its destiny in death? Vs. 8 For this selflessness Christ's exaltation (Phi. 2:9) is certainly greater than that of the righteous or just believer (Rom. 14:9). Moreover, he is given the name above every name "Kyrios, "Lord," (Jehovah) so that at the name of Jesus every knee shall bend. Does this not mean that he receives the same homage as God the Father (Rom. 14:11 and Isa. 45:23). Is not his status thus restored?

    1 John 1:2 "yes, the life was made manifest, and we have seen and are bearing witness and reporting to you the everlasting life which was with the Father and was made manifest to us."

    John 6:62 "What if you were to see the Son of man ascending to where he was before?"

    John 8:14 "I know where I came from and where I am going."

    John 16:28 "Now I am leaving the world and going back to the Father."

    If the nature of the Son and angels is spirit, what is the nature of the Father? John 4:24 says "God is a Spirit." Was His spirit nature created too?

  • Earnest
    Earnest
    If the nature of the Son and angels is spirit, what is the nature of the Father? John 4:24 says "God is a Spirit." Was His spirit nature created too? - Kenneson, 02-Nov-03 20:49 GMT

    The scripture speaks for itself. God, the holy spirit and the angels are all described as spirits. The fact that one is unbegotten and the others are begotten or created or proceed seems to make no difference to their nature.

  • Kenneson
    Kenneson

    If angels are of the same substance or essence or nature as the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, are they also God? Surely creatures are not on the same par as God. The Father is not made by anyone, nor created, nor begotten. The Son is from the Father alone, not made, not created, but begotten. The Holy Spirit is from the Father and Son,, not made, not created, not begotten but proceeding. Angels, on the other hand, are not begotten, not proceeding, but are created out of nothing. If angels already existed in God, they had no need to be created. The same is true of the universe. (Col. 1:16) So, then, what is it that distinguishes the Father from his creation, including angels?

  • Dean Porter
    Dean Porter

    Kenneson,

    You ask what is it that distinguishes the Father from the angels and the whole of creation.

    Well, I think your comments just prior to that question, answers it for you.

    Clearly the Father is distinguished from all others by the fact that he is uncreated , is not made, is unbegotten and does not proceed from anyone else.

    I find it strange that when the trinitarian definition itself shows the Son to be BEGOTTEN, whereas the Father is not, that you would still argue they are EQUAL. Clearly if the Son is Begotten, then he has not always existed in the sense that the Father alone has.

    The Son, as the only - begotten son stands between the Father and the rest of creation.

    This is why he is called the Logos. He is the IMAGE of God. He stands as the representative of God.

    He could not 'represent' God if he is that same Almighty God. Surely that is why Hebrews calls him the Image and then goes on to prove that he is the ultimate spokesman for God.

    Paul reasons in this Book that Jesus is the Greater spokesman, superior to the Angels divine and human.

    Greater than Melchezidek, Moses, Joshua etc. ( they were all human in nature like Jesus but his authority and position was greater).

    Greater than all the Angels ( divine sons of God in nature as Jesus is now but his authority and position is greater.)

    If Paul believed that Jesus is God Almighty why would he bother reasoning on his superiority over these typical men and angels.

    If he is God then his superiority is implied and there is no need to reason and prove this.

    Clearly, this was not in Pauls mind. He is reasoning on the basis that Jesus is the ultimate MEDIATOR ;
    PRIEST and KING, who rules for God and intercedes for man.

    For more on this line of thought , I would direct you to read George Buchanan's commentary on Hebrews
    printed as part of the Anchor Bible Commentary Series.

    page 21 " For the author , the Son was the first-born, the Apostle of God, the reflection of God's Glory, and the Stamp of his Nature ( 1:3,6), BUT HE WAS NOT GOD HIMSELF."

    Also, it is now known that these human mediators like Melchezidek and Moses were thought of in Second Temple Judaism as Angelic Mediator Figures. So the implication of Pauls reasoning is that he is equating Jesus as the ultimate Angelic Mediator Figure. A man who is gloryfied and exalted to a heavenly angelic mediatorial role.

    Just a few thoughts to ponder on.

    Dean.

  • Earnest
    Earnest
    If angels are of the same substance or essence or nature as the Father, Son and Holy Spirit, are they also God? Surely creatures are not on the same par as God...So, then, what is it that distinguishes the Father from his creation, including angels? - Kenneson, 03-Nov-03 01:00 GMT

    Quite clearly creatures are not on the same par as God, but if they have the same nature what distinguishes them? Apart from the obvious fact that God alone is unbegotten we have to consider what we really know of the spirit realm, and I believe the answer is very little. We can argue for centuries whether they are of the same substance (homoousios) or of a like substance (homoiousios), and Edward Gibbon noted in his Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire that "never had there been so much energy spent over a single vowel". But is it not somewhat presumptuous to go beyond what is written, and scripture clearly writes that heavenly beings are spirit. In a previous post (02-Nov-03 05:04 GMT) I referred to the fact that Paul discussed the nature of those resurrected and said (1 Cor.15:48) "As the one made of dust is, so those made of dust are also; and as the heavenly one is, so those who are heavenly are also". If those who are heavenly are the same as "the heavenly one" (Jesus) in the same sense that those made of dust are the same as "the one made of dust" (Adam) then they share his spirit nature. Yet as he is the only-begotten god at the right hand of the Father they are clearly not on the same par as Jesus. Yet they will have the same nature, as Paul says. I see no benefit in discussing essences, substances and hypostases when not only are these terms not used in the Bible, but their meaning is sufficiently vague to mean different things to different people. Dean Porter, You may like to add Martin Werner's book, The Formation of Christian Dogma: An Historical Study of the Problerm, translated by S.F.G. Brandon (San Fransisco: Harper & Brothers, 1957; reprint Boston: Beacon Press, 1965) to your reading list. Werner discusses the continuity of belief in the early church from angel Christology to Arius' subordinationism. Earnest

  • Kenneson
    Kenneson

    The explanation is that the Son is eternally begotten, God from God, true Light from true Light. Therefore, he never was made or created. Things made, like the universe and angels are not God because they are not eternal. But someone eternally begotten like the Son is God. But he is not the Father. They are two distinct Persons.

    Even Bible authors struggled to try to explain the relationship of the Father and the Son. Take for instance, the Word. Was there ever a time that God was "speechless" or mute and had no Word? Can God's Word be less than God? What about your human word. Is it less than you? Is not your word from you and an expression of you? To me, the Son is the Father's perfect, divine expression of himself and that is why the Son is said to be the Word of the Father. Likewise, the Son is spoken of as the Wisdom of God. There was never anytime that God was lacking in wisdom. The Father knows himself perfectly and this knowledge of himself is the person of the Son who is from all eternity, fully, perfectly God.

    What about the word "image" in Col. 1:15 and 2 Cor. 4:4? If one were to see the reflection of the Father in a mirror, what would he see? According to these passages, the Son. Or if one looked at the Son, he would see the Father. John 14:9, 11and 6:46 Jesus revealed the Father. However, that is not to say that the Son is the Father or the Father is the Son. John 1:18 But there is such an intimacy and unity between the Father and the Son, that they are actually interdependent. John 16:15; John 1:14 See also John 6:44 and John 14:6; John 8:16, 29; John 10:15

    The reason for introducing Jesus' superioriy to the angels is connected with the whole purpose of Hebrews: the addressees are in danger of falling away from the word of God spoken through his Son. The consequences of that would be fearful, much worse than the punishment received by those Hebrews who disobeyed the word spoken through angels (Heb. 2:2), the Mosaic law, because the Son is superior to the angel mediators of the law (See Acts 7:53 and Gal. 3:19). While the author of Hebrews did not believe that the Son was the Father, he nevertheless believed he was God because he applied numerous Old Testament passages to Jesus that originally referred to Jehovah . Heb. 2

    Concerning the exaltation, there is more food for thought. And I am only thinking out loud. While Jesus is refilled with everything that he emptied himself of (Phil. 2:7) when he returns to the Father, could there be more involved in his exaltation since he became human, which he was not before. What became of his body ("the glorified and exalted man") you speak about? Could it be that it is because of his glorified body now at the right hand of the Father (Heb. 1:3) that angels were made subject to him? See 1 Pet. 3:22 I was also thinking of 1 Cor. 15:44.

  • Kenneson
    Kenneson

    P.S.
    I am addressing Dean Porter.

  • Kenneson
    Kenneson

    Earnest,

    I agree with you that we know little of the spirit realm. The thought, in my mind, raises innumerable questions. The Father, Son and Holy Spirit are referred to as Spirit and angels are spirit creatures and man has a spirit ( else how could he worship in spirit God who is a spirit? Moreover, unless Gen. 1:26 refers to heavenly men, then man has a spirit. And even the New Testament suggests as much in 1 Thess. 5:23). However, only the Father, Son and Holy Spirit are referred to as God. So it seems that the God nature includes more than spirit and this is what I am concerned with. How do you preserve the sovereignty of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit without denying that angels are spirit beings and man has a spirit?

    Now, on to Jesus. If Jesus was an angel before he became man but received a higher position to them only at his resurrection and ascension, then what was his position to the other angels in his Pre-existence? They were made through him and for him (even before he became a man). And even as a man they catered to him at his temptation in the wilderness (Matt. 4:11) and on the Mount of Olives (Luke 22:43). And Matt. 26:53 shows that 12 legions of angels could have come to his rescue if he had asked the Father. So, then, is Hebrews saying that it is his glorified and exalted humanity that is now superior to the angels or something else? Also, what became of his spirit nature that you speak of when he became a man? Angels, it seems, in the Old Testament could materialize. But Scriptures don't speak of Jesus materializing a body and appearing like a man. It says he became a man.

    I have more to ask about the passage in 1 Cor. 15, but I have to go to work now.

  • hooberus
    hooberus

    "Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they." Hebrews 1:4

    Shouldn't Hebrews 1:4 have the word "other" in front of the word "angels" if Jesus were an angel who was made better than the "other" angels?

    "Who being the brightness of his glory, and the express image of his person, and upholding all things by the word of his power, when he had by himself purged our sins, sat down on the right hand of the Majesty on high; Being made so much better than the angels, as he hath by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they." Hebrews 1:3-4

    Hebrews 1:3-4 is showing that the one who purged our sins who sat down at the right hand of the Father was made better than the angels. It is talking about the man Jesus Christ being made better than the angels, not an angel being made better than the "other" angels.

Share this

Google+
Pinterest
Reddit