Revised NWT released in Spanish

by Corney 22 Replies latest jw friends

  • Corney
    Corney

    Today in Madrid.

    jw.org/es-nwt

    Photos, videos, comments:

    https://jwtalk.net/topic/16901-new-world-translation-2013-revision-in-additional-languages/page/35/#comments

    https://extj.co/foro/showthread.php?tid=327&pid=47436#pid47436

    It appears to be released digitally only. According to a JWtalk user, there are "no hard copies as of yet. Not sure when they will come. But it can be downloaded for now". And attendants were instructed to download it from a special server:


    Source

    According to another poster (if I understand that comment correctly), they promised to ship "millions of [hard copy] Bibles" to congregations.

  • RubaDub
    RubaDub

    Corney ...

    Thank you so much!!!

    (Full disclosure: I am a gringo in a Spanish congregation in South Florida and "Cuban" Spanish is my second language).

    It should be interesting to see how they handled the variations in the Spanish language. As was commented, the Portuguese have two versions; one for Brasil and one for Portugal.

    Spanish is a whole different animal. You have somewhere in the neighborhood of 20 Spanish speaking countries (I am guessing) and often sub-divisions within countries (for example, in Spain, there is, what most of us call "Spanish" and then in the eastern part there is the Castilian Spanish).

    It only gets worse in the Americas. A phrase to a Columbian woman that she looks nice may be taken by a Cuban woman that you want to screw her (or better translated using the F word).

    I honestly thought there would have to be at least 5 new translations to try to take into account the significant and regional differences with Spanish.

    I am very interested to see how they handled some of the more difficult passages in an apparent "one size fits all" situation.

    In all honesty, I am surprised they were able to get this done in the time frame they did.

    [As a side note, from a couple of Bethelites I have know for a long time, translating Spanish has always been a major thorn in the side of the translation department, given the large number of Spanish-speaking JW's. Before even getting into the regional differences, you had the major divide between the "Spain Spanish" and the "Spanish of the Americas". Depending on who was in charge of a particular publication, the context would tilt towards his own background and ethnicity.]

    Rub a Dub

  • Tenacious
    Tenacious

    Don't worry Rub a Dub, excrement usually all looks the same.

  • eyeuse2badub
    eyeuse2badub

    Do any jw's actually still use a hard copy of the bible? Why waste the time to print them?

    just saying!

  • Tenacious
    Tenacious

    Any so-called translations from their original Greek or Hebrew language by the governing maggots will always be tainted. Those maggots in their effort to take away the deity of Christ even created a non-existent Greek grammar rule. Hahahahaha!!

    But hey, what else can they do but lie to make it work, right?

    Stupid idiots I'm glad they're paying for everything now. And I truly hope some of them get thrown in prison for their complicity in countries where it is required to report crimes to the authorities religion or not.

  • RubaDub
    RubaDub

    Any so-called translations from their original Greek or Hebrew language by the governing maggots will always be tainted. Those maggots ...

    Tenacious ...

    Why not tell us how you really feel.

    Rub a Dub

  • Tenacious
    Tenacious

    @ RubaDub:

    Okay, I will . . . . . . . they're MAGGOTS!!

    Bahahahaha!!!

    Your avatar is cool by the way!

  • Wonderment
    Wonderment

    Tenacious: "Any so-called translations from their original Greek or Hebrew language by the governing maggots will always be tainted. Those maggots in their effort to take away the deity of Christ even created a non-existent Greek grammar rule. Hahahahaha!!"

    Could you be so kind as to describe for us the specific non-existent Greek grammar rule that was created by these "governing maggots"? It would also help if you shed some light on your linguistic reasons for you to reach this conclusion as a critic?

    By the way, I am glad that the long-awaited Spanish version of the NWT 2013 is being released. We all benefit from more Bible reading, not less. The Bible has a calming effect on the people the more they read it.

  • Tenacious
    Tenacious

    @ Wonderment

    I agree that "we all benefit from more bible reading, not less." See that's not my point. I actually read the bible everyday. But what's the point in reading the bible when it's been deliberately mistranslated to fit your theology?

    Will you find the truth as it was originally written? No, absolutely not. You may find some real good moral points and get a sense of how God thinks of certain things but the ESSENTIAL points that lead a person to their salvation will be skewed and missed. It's like Jesus said in John 5:39 about reading and studying the scriptures only to realize you've missed the whole point! And that was to come to Him for salvation!

    Having said that, to provide you with an answer to both of your questions, I will quote user Frank Luke from the Stack Exchange website. He's in a much better position than me as I did not study Greek nor claim it. I do however, read recognized Greek scholars who have for years studied it and draw my conclusions from them:

    " . . . . While the Greek lacks the definite article on theos in the clause under discussion, that doesn't mean the English should be translated with an indefinite article. Greek and English do not enjoy a one-to-one relationship between their words. There are times in Greek when the article is present but not translated into English. Likewise, there are places where the article is not present in the Greek but the English requires it, or in this case, requires something to show the definiteness of the word.

    Example 1: John 18:16 in Greek literally says: "...the disciple, the other, the one known to the high priest..." That's horrible English. So it gets translated (rightly) as "the other disciple, who was known to the high priest." As you can see the word order changed coming into English as well as two definite articles dropping out.

    Example 2: John 1:1 contains another example of a time without an article in Greek but needed in English. It says, "en arche 'en o logos..." that is (literally) "In beginning was the Word." Notice that there is no definite article before arche. However, even the New World Translation puts the article there. That is how it should be. To leave it out would cause confusion in the English "In a beginning was the Word..." That implies that there were multiple beginnings to the universe, but that isn't what the Bible teaches. It's a difference in Greek and English. Likewise, the Septuagint of Genesis starts with en arche.

    The reason the clause at the end of John 1:1 lacks the article deals with rules of Greek grammar. English uses word order to drive the meaning of a sentence. We almost always have subjects first, then verbs, then the objects (excepted Yoda speech is). Greek doesn't use word order to differentiate between types of nouns. They use word order for emphasis (Hebrew does the same thing). To tell the difference in the subject and the object (both of which are nouns), Greek uses case endings. They can then put the object of the verb at the beginning of the clause with the subject after the verb and still know what the sentence means. In English, "dog bites man" and "man bites dog" mean entirely different things.

    However, in Greek, they would put case endings on the nouns and comprehend the same meaning even with the word order switched around. In the following example, I am using case endings here as an illustration. [s] means subject, and [o] means object. In Greek there is no difference between "dog[s] bites man[o]" and "man[o] bites dog[s]." They mean the exact same thing. This works with action verbs, linking verbs are different, but the action verbs show how the Greek usually works.

    The clause in question (which uses a linking verb) literally reads kai theos 'en 'o logos (literally "and God was the Word" but you won't find it translated that way for good reason). Notice that the word order is switched around with "God" at the front of the clause. Because the verb is a linking verb, the subject and object use the same case ending, the nominative. With a linking verb, the part of the clause that would be the object often drops the article (even though it would use it otherwise), especially when it is in front of the verb (as here). When the object of a clause is a noun like this, it is called the "predicate nominative" and Colwell's Rule allows the translation to indicate the definiteness of the word even when the Greek lacks the article.

    In English, we don't put "the" in front of God to show definiteness. We capitalize it. That's what Greek scholars recognize in this verse.

  • Corney
    Corney

    In case anybody is interested about hard copies:

    Because of the unprecedented volume of Bibles required for this release, no printed copies were distributed at the [convention] venues. However, Spanish congregations worldwide will receive printed copies as soon as they are available.

    https://www.jw.org/en/news/jw/region/spain/A-Historic-Event-Jehovahs-Witnesses-Release-Revised-New-World-Translation-in-Spanish/ (footnote)

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