Virgin Birth Claim Disproves Biblical Inspiration

by AlanF 63 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • gsx1138
    gsx1138
    If anyone can show me some actual proof of the connection between Jesus and Horus, then I will believe it.

    It is unbelievable how many Websites on Google have these Lists of so-called "connections" between Jesus and Horus (over 13,000 Sites - everyone from Atheists to Muslims to Pagans), but I have yet to see any actual proof.

    I have never seen actual proof that Jesus ever existed. I have never seen actual proof that any miracles were ever preformed by anyone in the Bible. The problem with christian apologist thought is that they have a preconceived notion before they even begin to ask questions. You are looking for a direct link between Jesus and Horus. You're not going to get one. I find it interesting that "christian" theologians will admit copying from other religions but not their own. We can make comparisons between Roman myths and Greek myths but you're not going to find a document that says, "We the Romans decided to take Greek gods/goddesses and make them our own." But the similarities are so glaring that it would moronic to think otherwise. Every secular archeaologist article I've read agrees that it is likely that most of the Christian stories are nothing more than copies. The Romans were infamous for incorporating other religions into their own. Why is it so hard to believe that they did the same with the NT? Please don't be one of those moronic christians that cover their ears and sing "Bringing out the Sheep." every time someone exposes something you don't agree with. That being said, I do commend those christians who don't feel questioning the Bible is an afront to their faith.

  • gumby
    gumby

    gsx,

    Well said.....well said!

  • AlanF
    AlanF

    In one post Newlight2 said: :: "I consider this particular Abraham story to be complete myth. . .So here we have an example of a myth being used to support a claim of Biblical inspiration. Is it any wonder that skeptics are skeptical?"

    : Where is your outside "proof" that the Isaac/Abraham story is a myth? What ancient text can you cite that says that "this particular Abraham story to be complete myth"?

    I don't need any "outside proof" that the story is a myth, any more than I need any "outside proof" that unicorns are a myth. That's why I said that I consider this story a myth. I don't need to prove anything at all about this. It isn't even relevant to my point! Nevertheless, you're making a mistake that has been railed against constantly by skeptics with respect to supernatural stories: it is not our problem to disprove them -- it is up to you believers to prove them. I can no more prove that the Abraham/Isaac sacrifice story is a myth than you can prove that stories about the Norse god Odin are myths, or that unicorns don't exist.
    Your demand that I produce an ancient text that says the story is a myth is patently self-serving and stupid. You already know that such a document does not exist. You know perfectly well that you would discount such a story if it did, since you already "know" that the Abraham story is true. Who do you think you're fooling?

    : The Old Testament is one document. The New Testament is one document. They are two separate documents, however, combined they make up the one modern day book, the Bible.
    So say the Christians. : As two separate documents, they can justly be compared with each other. It is not circular reeasoning and special pleading to do this. Since I never said that it was, your argument is a straw man. I did say that it is a circular argument and special pleading to apply one understanding to the 'true' meaning of almah in Isaiah 7:14 when you apply it to Jesus, and another meaning when you apply it to whatever child may have been born in Ahaz' time to fulfill the prophecy -- unless you can provide special evidence showing why the special pleading is justified and your argument is not circular. So far, as I show below, your arguments are nothing but special pleading. : I am not trying to "prove" insparation of the Bible here. Oh please! : Biblical typology is a method of interpretation. It is a method of study to compare and analize two documents by comparing one with the other. That is where the words "foreshadowed" and "typified" have their importance. Right, and in the hands of skillful interpreters such as the infamous Fred Franz of the Watchtower Society, writings like those in the Bible can be made to say just about anything. That's just what the writer of Matthew has done with Isaiah 7:14. In a post following the above, UnDisfellowshipped said:

    : First of all, AlanF, you made a mistake -- in Isaiah 7:13-14 the person being spoken to was not Ahaz, it was the House of David -- the nation of Israel (Ahaz had correctly refused to test God):

    : Isaiah 7:13-14: He said, "Listen now, house of David: Is it a small thing for you to weary men, that you will weary my God also? Therefore the Lord Himself will give you [plural] a sign: behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a Son, and shall call His Name Immanuel. : My Christian friend helped me to realize that in my previous post on this Thread, I was basing my answers on the fact that the prophecy was given to Ahaz, and that the prophecy had to have an immediate fulfillment.

    Well your Christian friend is wrong, because the complete text of Isaiah 7:1-17 shows that Isaiah spoke to both Ahaz and to the "house of David". Note the bolded text (NIV) below:

    1 When Ahaz son of Jotham, the son of Uzziah, was king of Judah, King Rezin of Aram and Pekah son of Remaliah king of Israel marched up to fight against Jerusalem, but they could not overpower it. 2 Now the house of David was told, "Aram has allied itself with Ephraim"; so the hearts of Ahaz and his people were shaken, as the trees of the forest are shaken by the wind. 3 Then the LORD said to Isaiah, "Go out, you and your son Shear-Jashub, to meet Ahaz at the end of the aqueduct of the Upper Pool, on the road to the Washerman's Field. 4 Say to him, 'Be careful, keep calm and don't be afraid. Do not lose heart because of these two smoldering stubs of firewood-because of the fierce anger of Rezin and Aram and of the son of Remaliah. 5 Aram, Ephraim and Remaliah's son have plotted your ruin, saying, 6 "Let us invade Judah; let us tear it apart and divide it among ourselves, and make the son of Tabeel king over it." 7 Yet this is what the Sovereign LORD says:

    " 'It will not take place, it will not happen, 8 for the head of Aram is Damascus, and the head of Damascus is only Rezin. Within sixty-five years Ephraim will be too shattered to be a people. 9 The head of Ephraim is Samaria, and the head of Samaria is only Remaliah's son. If you do not stand firm in your faith, you will not stand at all.' "

    10 Again the LORD spoke to Ahaz, 11 "Ask the LORD your God for a sign, whether in the deepest depths or in the highest heights." 12 But Ahaz said, "I will not ask; I will not put the LORD to the test." 13 Then Isaiah said, "Hear now, you house of David! Is it not enough to try the patience of men? Will you try the patience of my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel. 15 He will eat curds and honey when he knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right. 16 But before the boy knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right, the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste. 17 The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father a time unlike any since Ephraim broke away from Judah-he will bring the king of Assyria."



    The entire passage is talking to both Ahaz, the king of the nation, and to the people of the nation. Verse two says that Ahaz and his people were afraid. God spoke through Isaiah variously to Ahaz and to all of the people in every part of the passage. The latter part of verse sixteen is obviously referring to all of Judah, including Ahaz, as being in "dread". Verse 17 makes this all explicit: "The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father..." the things spoken of. : AlanF said: :: Not a single word in Isaiah 7 indicates a fulfillment of the prophecy beyond a few years.

    : But, actually, where does the context state that it has to have an immediate fulfillment? The prophecy simply says: : "For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken." : Why couldn't that simply mean that before the Messiah arrives, the land of those two kings will be forsaken? Because context doesn't allow it. A contemporary reader would have no reason to think that the prophecy given to Ahaz would have anything other than a contemporary fulfillment. According to the passage I quoted above, it was Ahaz and the house of David, Judah, who were in fear of the two marauding kings. It was them to whom Isaiah gave the prophecy for their comfort. They were not concerned about events hundreds of years in the future. They were concerned for their safety NOW. Look at verses 16-17 once again: "... the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste. 17 The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father a time unlike any since Ephraim broke away from Judah-he will bring the king of Assyria." It is simply ridiculous to claim that such language does not refer to Ahaz and the people of Judah.

    Concerning this, UnDisfellowshipped gave a reference to an explanation in Barnes Notes. Please refer to it: "I. Evidence That the Prophecy Refers to Some Event Which Was Soon to Occur - To the Birth of a Child of Some One Who Was Then a Virgin, or Unmarried"

    : Here are the comments my friend told me Your friend obviously does not take the Bible context into account.

    : I now have a much better and clearer understanding of the prophecy -- it DID NOT have an immediate fulfillment. Its ONLY fulfillment was in the Messiah who was truly Immanuel -- GOD WITH US in the Flesh

    Since this argument rests on a claim that the Bible itself contradicts via context, it is invalid. In fact, it's a pretty good example of special pleading.

    The rest of your comments are irrelevant to my point. AlanF

  • pseudoxristos
    pseudoxristos

    Horus was born of the virgin Isis-Meri on December 25th in a cave/manger with his birth being announced by a star in the East and attended by three wise men.

    His earthly father was named "Seb" ("Joseph").

    He was of royal descent.

    At age 12, he was a child teacher in the Temple, and at 30, he was baptized, having disappeared for 18 years.

    Horus was baptized in the river Eridanus or Iarutana (Jordan) by "Anup the Baptizer" ("John the Baptist"), who was decapitated.

    He had 12 disciples, two of whom were his "witnesses" and were named "Anup" and "Aan" (the two "Johns").

    Although I consider myself an atheist/agnostic, I found it somewhat disturbing when looking into the claims concerning the parallels between Jesus and the pagan deities such as Horus. As Undisfellowshiped pointed out, there are many sites that list these similarities, and none that I’ve seen, have sufficient documentation to back up the claims.

    I realize that Mythology is a complicated, but bold statements such as these should have well documented proof to back them up, otherwise they do more harm than good. The proof does not have to be extensive, maybe some ancient text (in context), with explanations where the concepts are vague.

    I was able to find information on the parallel concerning the three Wise Men. It seems that the three stars in Orion’s belt can also be referred to as the “Three Kings”. During the season in which Horus was born, these “Three Kings” were ascending in the eastern sky. So, in a manner it could be said that three “Wise Men” were in attendance.

    I also found information on the “twelve disciples”. The twelve zodiac signs represent Horus’ twelve disciples.

    I can see how early Christians could have adapted these myths, but the way the information is presented makes it seem as if the parallels are direct and exact, instead of indistinct and fuzzy.

    Christians will definitely protest and deny this information, especially if the proper documentation is not there. Anyone that presents this information without proper documentation is just as guilty as the early Christians who stretched the concepts in the Old Testament (such as the virgin birth) to fit their means.

    pseudo

  • NewLight2
    NewLight2
    In a following post Newlight2 said:


    : First of all, AlanF, you made a mistake -- in Isaiah 7:13-14 the person being spoken to was not Ahaz, it was the House of David -- the nation of Israel (Ahaz had correctly refused to test God):

    AlanF - you have made another posting mistake - your second in this thread (the first was pointed out to you by Farkel). I did not make the above statement which continues at great length. That was posted by "UnDisfellowshipped" and it is he/she that has consulted with a Christian friend. We are NOT the same poster.


    Please edit your post to reflect this mistake.


    NewLight2

  • jst2laws
    jst2laws

    Alan, Alan, Alan.

    Such patience. You are a poet in a Redneck Bar.

    Jst2

  • UnDisfellowshipped
    UnDisfellowshipped

    AlanF said:

    [Quoting NewLight2]: The Old Testament is one document. The New Testament is one document. They are two separate documents, however, combined they make up the one modern day book, the Bible. [End of Quote]
    So say the Christians.

    So, AlanF, are you trying to imply that the Old Testament was written by the same people who wrote the New Testament? Or that the Old Testament was written at the same time period as the New Testament? Just what are you trying to imply by saying "So say the Christians"?

    AlanF said:

    In a following post Newlight2 said:

    Actually, you are now commenting on my post, not NewLight2's.

    AlanF said:

    [Quoting UnDisfellowshipped]: First of all, AlanF, you made a mistake -- in Isaiah 7:13-14 the person being spoken to was not Ahaz, it was the House of David -- the nation of Israel (Ahaz had correctly refused to test God):
    : Isaiah 7:13-14: He said, "Listen now, house of David: Is it a small thing for you to weary men, that you will weary my God also? Therefore the Lord Himself will give you [plural] a sign: behold, a virgin shall conceive, and bear a Son, and shall call His Name Immanuel.
    : My Christian friend helped me to realize that in my previous post on this Thread, I was basing my answers on the fact that the prophecy was given to Ahaz, and that the prophecy had to have an immediate fulfillment. [End of Quoting UnDisfellowshipped]
    Well your Christian friend is wrong, because the complete text of Isaiah 7:1-17 shows that Isaiah spoke to both Ahaz and to the "house of David". Note the bolded text (NIV) below:
    1 When Ahaz son of Jotham, the son of Uzziah, was king of Judah, King Rezin of Aram and Pekah son of Remaliah king of Israel marched up to fight against Jerusalem, but they could not overpower it. 2 Now the house of David was told, "Aram has allied itself with Ephraim"; so the hearts of Ahaz and his people were shaken, as the trees of the forest are shaken by the wind. 3 Then the LORD said to Isaiah, "Go out, you and your son Shear-Jashub, to meet Ahaz at the end of the aqueduct of the Upper Pool, on the road to the Washerman's Field. 4 Say to him, 'Be careful, keep calm and don't be afraid. Do not lose heart because of these two smoldering stubs of firewood-because of the fierce anger of Rezin and Aram and of the son of Remaliah. 5 Aram, Ephraim and Remaliah's son have plotted your ruin, saying, 6 "Let us invade Judah; let us tear it apart and divide it among ourselves, and make the son of Tabeel king over it." 7 Yet this is what the Sovereign LORD says:
    " 'It will not take place, it will not happen, 8 for the head of Aram is Damascus, and the head of Damascus is only Rezin. Within sixty-five years Ephraim will be too shattered to be a people. 9 The head of Ephraim is Samaria, and the head of Samaria is only Remaliah's son. If you do not stand firm in your faith, you will not stand at all.' "
    10 Again the LORD spoke to Ahaz, 11 "Ask the LORD your God for a sign, whether in the deepest depths or in the highest heights." 12 But Ahaz said, "I will not ask; I will not put the LORD to the test." 13 Then Isaiah said, "Hear now, you house of David! Is it not enough to try the patience of men? Will you try the patience of my God also? 14 Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel. 15 He will eat curds and honey when he knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right. 16 But before the boy knows enough to reject the wrong and choose the right, the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste. 17 The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father a time unlike any since Ephraim broke away from Judah-he will bring the king of Assyria."
    The entire passage is talking to both Ahaz, the king of the nation, and to the people of the nation. Verse two says that Ahaz and his people were afraid. God spoke through Isaiah variously to Ahaz and to all of the people in every part of the passage. The latter part of verse sixteen is obviously referring to all of Judah, including Ahaz, as being in "dread". Verse 17 makes this all explicit: "The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father..." the things spoken of.
    [Quoting AlanF's earlier statement]: AlanF said:
    :: Not a single word in Isaiah 7 indicates a fulfillment of the prophecy beyond a few years. [End of Quote]
    [Quoting UnDisfellowshipped]: But, actually, where does the context state that it has to have an immediate fulfillment? The prophecy simply says: "For before the boy will know enough to refuse evil and choose good, the land whose two kings you dread will be forsaken."
    Why couldn't that simply mean that before the Messiah arrives, the land of those two kings will be forsaken? [End of Quote]
    Because context doesn't allow it. A contemporary reader would have no reason to think that the prophecy given to Ahaz would have anything other than a contemporary fulfillment. According to the passage I quoted above, it was Ahaz and the house of David, Judah, who were in fear of the two marauding kings. It was them to whom Isaiah gave the prophecy for their comfort. They were not concerned about events hundreds of years in the future. They were concerned for their safety NOW. Look at verses 16-17 once again: "... the land of the two kings you dread will be laid waste. 17 The LORD will bring on you and on your people and on the house of your father a time unlike any since Ephraim broke away from Judah-he will bring the king of Assyria." It is simply ridiculous to claim that such language does not refer to Ahaz and the people of Judah.

    Let's see, where should I start:

    AlanF said: "Context doesn't allow it"

    You correctly stated that the LORD was comforting them with a message, however, the LORD had already given a comforting immediate promise BEFORE Isaiah 7:14, notice:

    Isaiah 7:5-8: Aram, Ephraim and Remaliah's son have plotted your ruin, saying, "Let us invade Judah; let us tear it apart and divide it among ourselves, and make the son of Tabeel king over it." Yet this is what the Sovereign LORD says: " 'It will not take place, it will not happen, for the head of Aram is Damascus, and the head of Damascus is only Rezin. Within sixty-five years Ephraim will be too shattered to be a people.

    Since the LORD had already given a comforting immediate prophecy ("It will not take place, it will not happen" and "Within sixty-five years..."), then why do you claim that Isaiah 7:14 must have been a prophecy with an immediate fulfillment?

    Wouldn't a prophecy (given to the entire House of David, not only Ahaz) about the Messiah coming into the world, who was going to take away all of the faithful people's sins, have been comforting to the listeners of Isaiah? And wouldn't it have been comforting to hear the prophecy that within 65 years, those two kings would be no more, and that when the Messiah arrives, the land of those two kings would be forsaken?

    AlanF said: "They were not concerned about events hundreds of years in the future."

    All throughout the Bible, the Jews expected the Messiah SOON - they did not know that the Messiah wouldn't come to Earth for hundreds of years -- so Isaiah 7:14 would be a comforting reminder that the Messiah is coming to take away the sins of all faithful believers.

    What is the main purpose of prophecy? It is to prove that only Yahweh (Jehovah) can foretell the future with accuracy -- hundreds of years in advance.

    Also, in Isaiah 8:3-4, it says:

    I [Isaiah] went to the prophetess; and she conceived, and bore a son. Then the LORD said to me, "Call his name Maher Shalal Hash Baz. For before the child shall have knowledge to cry, 'My father, and, My mother', the riches of Damascus and the spoil of Samaria shall be carried away before the king of Assyria."

    Isaiah 8:3-4 is definitely unquestionably an immediate prophecy because the prophecy states that it is.

    I find it very interesting that Isaiah 7:14-16 does not mention when the child "Immanuel" was born, or who his parents were, however in Isaiah 8:3-4, which is a definite immediate prophecy, it does mention when the child was born, and who the child's parents were.

    If Isaiah 7:14-16 had an immediate fulfillment, how would the readers of Isaiah's prophecy in Isaiah's time know which child it was or when the child was born, because the Scriptures do not state this information? (There could have been more than one child called "Immanuel")

    And, if Isaiah 7:14-16 was already given as an immediate prophecy, why was it necessary to have a 2nd immediate prophecy, which is nearly identical, in Isaiah 8:3-4?

    Also, Isaiah 9:6-7 proves that Isaiah did indeed insert prophecies about hundreds of years in the future, in the middle of context in which he was speaking about current and immediate events -- in other words, "the context does allow it" because this is the writing style of Isaiah:

    Isaiah 9:1-12: But there shall be no gloom to her who was in anguish. In the former time he brought into contempt the land of Zebulun and the land of Naphtali; but in the latter time has he made it glorious, by the way of the sea, beyond the Jordan, Galilee of the nations. The people who walked in darkness have seen a great light: those who lived in the land of the shadow of death, on them has the light shined. You have multiplied the nation, you have increased their joy: they joy before you according to the joy in harvest, as men rejoice when they divide the spoil. For the yoke of his burden, and the staff of his shoulder, the rod of his oppressor, you have broken as in the day of Midian. For all the armor of the armed man in the tumult, and the garments rolled in blood, shall be for burning, for fuel of fire. For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be on his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace. Of the increase of his government and of peace there shall be no end, on the throne of David, and on his kingdom, to establish it, and to uphold it with justice and with righteousness from henceforth even forever. The zeal of Yahweh of Hosts will perform this. The Lord sent a word into Jacob, and it has lighted on Israel. All the people shall know, even Ephraim and the inhabitant of Samaria, who say in pride and in arrogance of heart, The bricks are fallen, but we will build with hewn stone; the sycamores are cut down, but we will put cedars in their place. Therefore Yahweh will set up on high against him the adversaries of Rezin, and will stir up his enemies, the Syrians before, and the Philistines behind; and they shall devour Israel with open mouth. For all this his anger is not turned away, but his hand is stretched out still.

    In Isaiah Chapter 9, the surrounding context is obviously speaking of current events and immediate events, and yet Isaiah 9:6 says "For to us a child is born, to us a son is given; and the government shall be on his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, Mighty God, Everlasting Father, Prince of Peace."

    That Verse says "a child IS BORN to us" [present tense], but we know that this a future prophecy of the Messiah, because NO ONE ELSE could possibly have fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah 9:6-7! Who else is Eternal? Who else is God? Who else shall rule God's Kingdom? It is obviously a future prophecy about the Messiah -- but the surrounding context is speaking of immediate and current events.

    Isaiah did the exact same thing in Isaiah 7:14-16 -- he gave a prophecy with a fulfillment hundreds of years in the future -- right in the middle of context which is describing current and immediate events -- the exact same as he did in Isaiah 9:6-7.</font>

    Please let me know what you think about these comments.

    Also, gumby, did you even read any of those Web Pages I posted about the supposed Jesus/Horus connections? You, and several other people keep claiming that there is all this "ancient evidence" which supports your claims, but I have never seen anyone provide a link to see any of this "ancient evidence".

  • UnDisfellowshipped
    UnDisfellowshipped

    gsx1138 said:

    I have never seen actual proof that Jesus ever existed. I have never seen actual proof that any miracles were ever preformed by anyone in the Bible. The problem with christian apologist thought is that they have a preconceived notion before they even begin to ask questions. You are looking for a direct link between Jesus and Horus. You're not going to get one.

    Well, gsx, according to JamesThomas and gumby, there are supposed to be a huge list of direct links between Jesus and Horus, for example notice JamesThomas' post from earlier in this Thread (and gumby claimed that there is lots of evidence supporting these connections):

    The Egyptian God Horus shares the following in common with Jesus:

    Horus was born of the virgin Isis-Meri on December 25th in a cave/manger with his birth being announced by a star in the East and attended by three wise men.

    His earthly father was named "Seb" ("Joseph").

    He was of royal descent.

    At age 12, he was a child teacher in the Temple, and at 30, he was baptized, having disappeared for 18 years.

    Horus was baptized in the river Eridanus or Iarutana (Jordan) by "Anup the Baptizer" ("John the Baptist"), who was decapitated.

    He had 12 disciples, two of whom were his "witnesses" and were named "Anup" and "Aan" (the two "Johns").

    He performed miracles, exorcised demons and raised El-Azarus ("El-Osiris"), from the dead.

    Horus walked on water.

    His personal epithet was "Iusa," the "ever-becoming son" of "Ptah," the "Father." He was thus called "Holy Child."

    He delivered a "Sermon on the Mount" and his followers recounted the "Sayings of Iusa."

    Horus was transfigured on the Mount.

    He was crucified between two thieves, buried for three days in a tomb, and resurrected.
    He was also the "Way, the Truth, the Light," "Messiah," "God’s Anointed Son," the "Son of Man," the "Good Shepherd," the "Lamb of God," the "Word made flesh," the "Word of Truth," etc.
    He was "the Fisher" and was associated with the Fish ("Ichthys"), Lamb and Lion.
    He came to fulfill the Law.
    Horus was called "the KRST," or "Anointed One."
    Like Jesus, "Horus was supposed to reign one thousand years

    So, naturally, when someone makes the claim that there is lots of evidence supporting something, I want to see this evidence, especially if it truly supports the connections above -- I am a truth-seeker -- if those Jesus/Horus connections are actually true, I want to know.

    I have not claimed that the Bible is true because it has "outside evidence" pointing to it, however, gumby has claimed that there is definite evidence of these direct and obvious connections between Horus and Jesus, so I request to see the evidence.

    gsx1138 said:

    I find it interesting that "christian" theologians will admit copying from other religions but not their own. We can make comparisons between Roman myths and Greek myths but you're not going to find a document that says, "We the Romans decided to take Greek gods/goddesses and make them our own." But the similarities are so glaring that it would moronic to think otherwise. Every secular archeaologist article I've read agrees that it is likely that most of the Christian stories are nothing more than copies.

    If you wouldn't mind, can you please provide some links to some of those statements by archeaologists.

    gsx1138 said:

    The Romans were infamous for incorporating other religions into their own. Why is it so hard to believe that they did the same with the NT? Please don't be one of those moronic christians that cover their ears and sing "Bringing out the Sheep." every time someone exposes something you don't agree with. That being said, I do commend those christians who don't feel questioning the Bible is an afront to their faith.

    Well, thank you for your comments, and even if you called me a moron, it's okay, I've been called worse things.

    Could you please point out where I have been anything like those "moronic Christians"?

    I wouldn't even be reading this Thread if I were like that.

    To answer your question, "Why is it so hard to believe that they did the same with the NT?", it would not be so hard to believe it if I could see the evidence that is supposed to exist.

    I mean, come on, I could randomly claim that ANY "God" was taken from another "God" story, and then I could make up these huge lists of "connections", and then I could claim that all of this evidence exists -- but if I refused to show any of this evidence, would you not doubt that I was being honest?

  • gumby
    gumby

    May I interject something?

    1.Undisfellowshipped..............cut your comments by two thirds if you can. When you get into a debate you say to much and present too much to read and you run people like myself away.

    2. Quit picking on alan just because he twists the names up.......he's busy trying to answer your questions and can't be bothered with names......plus he smokes waaaaay too much pot.

    BTW......Hows the re-search going boys on the documentation you are working so hard at looking up?

    Gumby

    I did see a little progress was made concerning Horus and the Parallel. Good! Keep at it....there a whole lot more.

  • JamesThomas
    JamesThomas

    In my earlier post with information on Horus, I said on the last line that: "I have no proof of any of this". It all could be a lie, I don't really know. Personally, I don't really care. I need no proof, one way or the other weather Jesus Christ was real or not. For me the word "Christ" points to something far beyond all the stories, concepts, beliefs and ideas about it. For those like Newlight2 and UnDisfellowssshipped who "need" proof to support their beliefs, is it not up to you to search out proof one way or the other yourselves? It's your need. Not mine. If I may I'd like to ask those in need of a Jesus, a question: What would happen to you if in your hungar to prove Jesus' existence, you discovered conclusively that Jesus never existed -- what then? You would be left naked and with nothing. Perhaps then, with your focus and attention taken off of phenomenal stories, you would find within yourselves the "Kingdom", rather than wasting time worshipping the messenger. Perhaps. JamesT

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