Reading this thread it occurs to me that there are debates as to whether the bible actually condemns homosexuality.
For those who are saying that the practice of homosexuality is a sin, could you explain which bible passages say that homosexuality is wrong? I would personally exclude the old testament because we all know that the old law was replaced by Jesus. So what new testament passages condemn homosexuality?
This link is VERY interesting:
There is no passage in the Christian Scriptures that condemns same-sex committed relationships or same-sex marriage.
Romans 1 condemns Christian apostates who apparently had a heterosexual orientation and who engaged in what was for them unnatural sex: engaging in sex with members of the same sex. 1 Corinthians 6 and 1 Timothy 1 are ambiguous. They might possibly relate to homosexual behavior; but they might well refer to men who sexually abuse boys, or to male gigolos, or to male temple prostitutes. We just don't know. If these passages actually referred to persons with a homosexual orientation, they probably would not refer to loving, consensual same-sex behavior in a committed relationship.
Paul was writing before the existence of a homosexual orientation was known. The only forms of homosexual behavior of which he was probably aware would have been males sexually abusing boys, and men engaging in of same-sex orgies during Pagan worship.
Jude 1:7 appears to refers to the desire by the men of Sodom to engage in bestiality with another species -- angels. There is none of this going on in by either homosexuals or heterosexuals today.
http://www.religioustolerance.org/hombiblnt.htm
After doing some rather lengthy research this is what I have come up with. I do not expect this to change most minds, and I fully expect the complete rejection of this view, but that's OK.
First, in regards to Jude 1:7, I agree that the Greek in this passage is ambiguous, and therefore not a verse I would use to support a ban on homosexuality within the body of believers. Pail is not merely looking at Greco-Roman culture and condemning the localized issues of pedophilia or temple prostitution.
There is no passage in the Christian Scriptures that condemns same-sex committed relationships or same-sex marriage.
Romans 1 condemns Christian apostates who apparently had a heterosexual orientation and who engaged in what was for them unnatural sex: engaging in sex with members of the same sex.
Whoever wrote this obviously has no understanding of the argument Paul has making. I will quote the section of Scripture in question:
18The wrath of God is being revealed from heaven against all the godlessness and wickedness of men who suppress the truth by their wickedness, 19since what may be known about God is plain to them, because God has made it plain to them. 20For since the creation of the world God's invisible qualities—his eternal power and divine nature—have been clearly seen, being understood from what has been made, so that men are without excuse.
21For although they knew God, they neither glorified him as God nor gave thanks to him, but their thinking became futile and their foolish hearts were darkened. 22Although they claimed to be wise, they became fools 23and exchanged the glory of the immortal God for images made to look like mortal man and birds and animals and reptiles.
24Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another. 25They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen.
26Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones. 27In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversion.
28Furthermore, since they did not think it worthwhile to retain the knowledge of God, he gave them over to a depraved mind, to do what ought not to be done. 29They have become filled with every kind of wickedness, evil, greed and depravity. They are full of envy, murder, strife, deceit and malice. They are gossips, 30slanderers, God-haters, insolent, arrogant and boastful; they invent ways of doing evil; they disobey their parents; 31they are senseless, faithless, heartless, ruthless. 32Although they know God's righteous decree that those who do such things deserve death, they not only continue to do these very things but also approve of those who practice them.
http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=romans%201&version=31
First, nowhere in this passage are "apostate Christians" in view. This passage is directly leveled at the unbelieving Gentile (from Paul's view) world. This segment of Scripture is the greatest exposition on general revelation ever penned. It shows that all unbelieving humanity is without excuse for not believing in God simply on account of the natural revelation about God.
Secondly, this passage is about God's wrath, and the specific progression of His wrath. The progression is as follows: suppression of truth (v. 18), God given them over to impure hearts (v. 24), exchanging the truth for a lie & worshipping idols (v. 25), exchanging natural function for unnatural (v. 26), lastly, encouraging others to do the same (v. 32). Because of this progression God's wrath falls upon them rightly (v. 18), they are deserving of death (v. 32), and they are without excuse (v. 20).
Paul, not only condemns homosexuality in this segment of Scripture, but a number of other sins as well. However since we are addressing homosexuality specifically, it behooves us to look at the terminology used to describe this behavior. First, it is impure & dishonoring to the body (v. 24), it is a degrading passion that is unnatural (v. 29), it is an indecent act & an error (v. 27), and lastly, it is not proper & is a result of a depraved mind (v. 28). Paul goes on to state that homosexuality (and the other sins) is evidence of active & persistent rebellion against God. This rebellion, according to v. 32, is rooted in direct, willful & aggressive rebellion again God (this would also be true of any "Christian" defending his homosexuality.
So now the big question must be asked, and that is, "Does this passage apply to all homosexuals?" What if one's "natural" desire is towards the same sex ("constitution homosexuals")? First, the scientific evidence is still in debate. Secondly, this "genetic" argument is actually a non-argument since it commits the naturalistic fallacy, i.e. you cannot get a moral "ought" from a natural "is." For example, humanity has a natural need to eliminate waste from their bodies; however it is against the law to so in public view. However, Paul is not addressing this as a physiological issue, but as a moral issue. So again, this argument does not follow. Third, this interpretation brings a totally foreign concept to this text. If Paul did not understand genuine homosexuality, how could he have possibly exempted constitutional homosexuals when he wrote that they "exchanged the natural function for that which is unnatural"? This is a suicidal argument. Fourth, if any who desire for the same sex are only doing what comes to them "naturally", then who does this verse apply to? As I have pointed out earlier, it cannot be apostate Christians, since they are not in view in this segment of Scripture.
Paul is crystal clear about what he meant by "natural." Function in the Greek is kreesis. This word is only used twice in the New Testament, but is used numerous times in other literature of the time. The definitive Greek language reference work, A Greek/English Lexicon of New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature by Bauer, Arndt & Gingrich define kreesis as "use, relations, function, especially of sexual intercourse." Since the way a word was/is used defines its meaning it is clear that Paul was addressing natural functions, not natural desires. The body was designed to function in a specific sexual way. Men were not designed to function sexually with other men. If passion exchanges the natural function of sex for an unnatural function, then it as a Paul describes, a degrading passion.
Lastly, we must look at what Jesus’ view of a natural & moral relationship. According to Matthew 19:4 & 5:
4 And He answered and said, “Have you not read that He who created them from the beginning MADE THEM MALE AND FEMALE , 5 and said, ‘F OR THIS REASON A MAN SHALL LEAVE HIS FATHER AND MOTHER AND BE JOINED TO HIS WIFE , AND THE TWO SHALL BECOME ONE FLESH ’? http://nasb.scripturetext.com/matthew/19.htm
Desire becomes unnatural when it abandons or exploits natural function. Extramarital heterosexuality is morally wrong because it exploits the natural function in am immoral manner. Homosexuality is viewed as wrong because it is an immoral act based on a perversion of a natural function.
