Well there were more than one exile for the Jewish people and during the reigns of Jehoiakim and Jehoiachin there was a exile for the nobility of Judah. This was followed ten years later by another exile involving Judah entirely to Babylon foretold by Jeremiah to be seventy years.
The point is, according to your model, the first batch were told they would be exiled for 70 years before the 70 years had even started. At best, that is meaningless. At worst, it's just plain cruel.
I agree with you that ther seventy years for Tyre occurrred during the seventy years for Judah whereby that period was of Babylon's greatest domination. There is no chagrin here but a point of agreement as the Isaiah Commentary nicely explains.
If a period of seventy years occurs during a period of seventy years, they are the same period. The fact is, Tyre wasn't subject for 70 years, but only part of that (34 years), because it was part of the 70 years during which Jeremiah said nations would serve Babylon. It's nice that you agree with something though.
So, we have two seventy year periods, one for Tyre which ended with the Fall of Babylon in 539 BCE and the other for Judah which ended with the Return to Jerusalem and Judah in 537 BCE. The former period was less than seventy years whereas the latter was a precise historic period of seventy years. Big difference between these two nations. Agree?
No, we have a 70-year period involved, and it ended in 539. A subset of that seventy years (34 years) involved Tyre's subjection to Babylon, which is what is referred to by Isaiah. Tyre was explicitly mentioned by Jeremiah as being included within the nations that would serve Babylon and was naturally included within that 70-year period. There was no need for some other separate 70-year period. You do realise, don't you, that not even the Society regards the two 70-year periods as being different? See Insight, volume 2, page 1136, paragraph 2. You are yet to provide any proof for the Jews' return in 537, or how that year is even possible in view of Josephus.
Celebrated WT scholars have not provided a chronology for the Neo-Babylonian period because the data is unreliable at this time but they would love to do so if it were humanly possible. We all live in hope!
The data is unreliable only in that the data won't do what they want it to. The chronology already exists. It's quite clear, with an abundance of evidence.
A broadly-accepted view of 609 BCE is simply inadequate to begin any useful chronology for not only is the date too fuzzy but the event itself is too fuzzy. Any chronology built on such a wobbly foudation must fall over. Such a 'fuzzy' event has no support in the Bible as you mistakenly claim and that is why Jonsson is forced to consider the alternative 605 BCE.
I have a working model, so my claims are not mistaken. What others claim is irrelevant. Where is your unfuzzy proof for 537?
We all Babylon fell in 539 BCE. We also know that Babylon, its king, land and country would be desolated after the seventy years, a judgement prophesied by Jeremiah which ended in 537 BCE.
Yes, "we all Babylon fell"... very good, you English become nicely. So now you're saying that the judgement ended in 537, which is just a lie, because nothing happened to Babylon's king in 537 because he was killed in 539, and the judgement of the nation was ongoing for some time after that, which is what you usually preach in order to draw attention away from the fact that the 70 years ended at 539.
So where then is the chronology for the kings of Tyre documented as you foolishly claim as 'well established"?
I'll post it once you give me your accurate chronology for the Neo-Babylonian kings.
You claim to have a good knowledge of the chronology of the period, but as soon as anyone raises known dates of the period regarding Babylon, Tyre, etc., you get confused and say they must be wrong or 'fuzzy'... but as your post 1212 shows, you're just not very good with figures.