Hey MeanMrMustard, maybe the book of Jeremiah refers to two overlapping periods of 70 years ..
I see what you did there. :)
But if the 70 years (or one period of 70 years) includes defeat of Assyria, why is their no mention of Assyria in Jeremiah chapter 25. As far as I can tell no city of Assyria is even mentioned in chapter 25. Am I missing something in chapter 25 which specifically refers to Assyria?
Why should there be? I guess this gets at the main point: what is the 70 years? It's been my position that if you look specifically at what's said, just read it grammatically and accept that it's not some sort of cryptic message, then it's 70 years of Babylonian rule.
Seventy years that nations (not just Judah) will serve Babylon. Again, 29:10 - "Seventy years FOR Babylon"
Every time the 70 years is mentioned it points to Babylon, and specifically it's rule. Like Daniel said (ch 9) he may not have known the exact time the 70 years began, but he sure knew when it ended. He was looking in Jeremiah and read that when the 70 years ends, the king of Babylon would be called to account, and he just saw that happen. He probably knew it was getting close (since he had been captive for a time approaching 70 years), but he knew it was over because Jeremiah said it was 70 years for (29:10) Babylon, and when the 70 years was over Babylon fell.
If the conquest of Assyria is included in the prophecy (and pertains to the start of the the 70 year period) then why does Jeremiah 25:1 say that Jeremiah received the prophecy during the first year in which Nebuchadrezzar was king - which was about two years after Nebuchadrezzar (during the reign of his father) had conquered Assyria and thus made it a part of the Babylonian empire?
Because tthatis when he received it. Where does it say the 70 years has any connection to when Jeremiah received the prophecy? The prophecy said 70 years Babylon would subjugate plural nations, including the ones "round about". They weren't all subjugated at the same time. Some nations were made vassals years before Neb. It's still seventy years FOR Babylon.
Why does verse 9 also state it pertains to the time in which Nebuchadrezzar was king and thus after Assyria had also became a part of the empire of Babylon?
Because Neb is king during the time Judah gets its punishment. So? The 70 years is still just connected to 'nations' serving Babylon.
That is right. Since Assyria was already conquered by Babylon by the time that the book of Jeremiah says that Jeremiah received the prophecy, then that means (according to the prophecy, as recorded in the book called Jeremiah) Assyria was already a part of Babylon (that is, the Babylonian empire, Babylonia) when the prophecy was received. That is probably why Assyria is no where mentioned in chapter 25 as one of the nations which will serve Babylon - since it was already a part of Babylon/Babylonia (Babylonian empire)!
Right. But it's seventy years FOR Babylon (29:10). Part of that 70 years is what Babylon did before Neb did anything to Judah. It wasn't a terribly long time, but it was there.
Notice also that Jeremiah 25:2 itself puts the emphasis upon Judah and Jerusalem - not upon the gentile nations, yet you claim is wrong for me and others to put the emphasis on Jerusalem and the rest of Judah.
This keeps coming up: that Jeremiah "puts emphasis" on Judah. You quote it :
Jeremiah 25:2 (NWT Study Edition) says the following. "'This is what Jeremiah the prophet spoke concerning* all the people of Judah and all the inhabitants of Jerusalem:"
This is essentially my issue. The condemnation is for Judah. They are going to get punished. How? By Babylonian rule. If you take verse 2 as somehow overriding the clear language in v11, then that's the exact ungrammatical reading I'm arguing against. He said 70 years FOR Babylon, when nations (plural) serve Babylon. One of those nations is Judah. That is the judgement that concerns Judah.