MeanMrMustard Jer 25:11 certainly refers to other nations who also are brought into servitude to Babylon but only for Judah that had to serve Babylon for a predetermined period of 70 years. After the 70 ended for Judah then as stated in vs 12 Babylon was to experience her judgement. The Babylonian rule or domination of Judah was to last for 70 years beginning in 607 BCE and ending in 537BCE.
Pffft lol. That is some top notch trollery.
For the sake of lurkers and the like: Notice 25:11 literally says, with no ambiguity, regardless of translation used, that “these nations will serve the king of Babylon seventy years.” It does not say Judah is captive for seventy years. It does not say Judah will serve Babylon for seventy years. It says “these nations”... the ones that were explicitly listed at the beginning of the chapter. There’s no interpreting to do, nothing. Just a plain, simple statement.
25:12 is also simple. It has an order of events. First, the seventy years ends. Next, Babylon is held to account. Since Babylon was held to account in 539 BC, the seventy years ended sometime before 539. Now, I guess you could say it ended the moment just before Babylon fell - whatever that means. But one thing you can’t say is that the seventy years “for Babylon” ended in 537.
This upsets WT chronology immediately. No need to debate about tablets.
There is no need to force any other date for the fall of Jerusalem. 587 BC works just fine, no contradictions.