@designs:
In Judaism all of the human family already belong to God, who else, and all are already taken care of and will be greeted at the gates of Paradise by Adam who will escort his children to Paradise or to a temporary correctional condition and then escort them to Paradise. The Jew who lives by the Torah goes straight in to Paradise or Gan Eden as does the Gentile who lives by the Laws of Noah. There we have our personal angels as attendants.
Well, if you've ever read the Bible with understanding, then you surely must know that these ideas are unscriptural, dumb really.
In the NT we are told No No only a very few gain Paradise and the majority of humanity end in Hell for all eternity sent there by Jesus. Judaism presents a much nicer solution, and Adam is much kinder than Jesus.
Not true. If you have ever read the Bible, it is clear to me that you haven't understood "NT" to deny the offspring of Adam, starting with Abel, the opportunity to live in Paradise. I mean, if you don't Jesus to have been lying when he promised one of the two men that hung alongside him on that fateful Friday, Nisan 14, 33 AD, that he would "be with him in Paradise" at Luke 23:43, then you would certainly have to believe that Abel will be among those that will be receiving a resurrection to life here on earth during the Millennial Reign of Jesus Christ. In fact, the very NT to which you pointed as being the source of this idea of yours that "the majority of humanity [will] end in Hell for all eternity sent there by Jesus]" states at Acts 24:15 that "there is going to be a resurrection of both the righteous and the unrighteous." This means that Christians have hope that billions of people that have lived and died over the past 6,000 years will receive a resurrection, for all of those in 'hell," that is, those in Hades, those in the memorial tombs, will be given the opportunity to learn righteousness, and although the wicked will have been shown favor by having their lives to make them over according to God's will, some of them will refuse to learn righteousness. (Isaiah 26:9, 10)
BTW, you must know that Judaism is dead "for all eternity" and so is Adam, but do you?
@Chalam:
The scriptures actually say Jesus was begotten, not created John 1:14, John 1:18, John 3:16, John 3:18, Acts 13:33, Hebrews 1:5
You're right; none of these scriptures you cited say that Jesus was created. With the exception of Acts 13:33 and Hebrews 1:5, which scriptures you cited in your post for some reason, you're also right that these other scriptures do indicate that Jesus was begotten.
If you don't mind, please explain why you cited Acts 13:33 and Hebrews 1:5, when neither of these verses say a thing about Jesus having been begotten.
Acts 13:33:
That God has entirely fulfilled it to us their children in that he resurrected Jesus; even as it is written in the second psalm, 'You are my son, I have become your Father this day.'
Hebrews 1:5:
For example, to which one of the angels did he ever say: "You are my son; I, today, I have become your father"? And again: "I myself shall become his father, and he himself will become my son"?
The words used is monogenés which means "[only] born" or "only child".
The Greek word _mo·no·ge·nes´_ is translated "only-begotten" for it refers to an "only" child, even as Paul describes Isaac as being Abraham's "only-begotten" son by Sarah (Hebrews 11:17), which Greek word is also used in describing the relationship of Jephthah's daughter to her father, she being described as "absolutely the only child" (Judges 11:34), in view of the fact that Jephthah had no other children. In describing Jesus at John 1:14, John 3:16 and 1 John 4:9, the apostle John refers to Jesus as being "the only-begotten Son" and "the only-begotten Son of God."
Jesus is Creator, not the created.
Then perhaps you wouldn't mind explaining why you reject the words of the apostle John at Revelation 3:14, where he describes Jesus as being (1) "the Amen," (2) "the faithful and true witness" and (3) "the beginning of the creation by God." According to this verse, why do you not conclude that Jesus didn't have a beginning, that he was God's very first creation, the beginning of God's creative works, if that is what the verse says?
@Ding:
From a trinitarian perspective, Jesus being both God and man, he is only one who is truly able to mediate between his Father (a distinct Person from Jesus) and human beings.
Why is it then that it was possible for Jehovah God to use the man, Moses, an imperfect human being, to mediate the Law covenant between Himself and the nation of Israel? What was it exactly do you think that made the man, Jesus, a perfect man, so inferior to Moses that he needed to be both "God and man" in order to mediate a covenant between Himself (as "God") and His anointed followers? And if the function of a mediator is to serve as a go-between that negotiates on behalf of two parties, how could Jesus be viewed as such if he is not only one of the two parties to the New Covenant and also the go-between? In a dissolution of marriage, when putting together the marital settlement agreement, which is a kind of covenant that divides the tangible assets of a divorcing couple, why doesn't the husband also serve as the mediator?
Having the husband be the mediator would certainly save a little money on the cost of hiring a neutral party to serve as a mediator of the settlement agreement between the husband and the wife, wouldn't it? The ex-husband-to-be wouldn't possibly try to leverage his interests against his ex-wife-to-be, would he? Or maybe the wife can be the mediator since there's no way that the ex-wife-to-be would likely attempt to leverage her interests against her ex-husband-to-be, now would she? Why would humans even bother to hire folks to serve as mediators in collective bargaining agreement for unions and professional sports teams when mediators aren't free, I wonder?
I mean, since you're saying stupid stuff, let's get totally stupid and just define the English language word "mediator" at 1 Timothy 2:5 in such a way that it is totally meaningless?
GOrwell:
How could the covenant be mediated if one party was the same as the mediator?
Good question. Like the word, "begotten," has a specific meaning -- it means "to generate" -- the word "mediator" used at 1 Timothy 2:5 also has a specific meaning, and it is synonymous with the word "negotiator," one who acts as a go-between as between two parties.
I don't see why being both God and man is a requirement of being "truly able" to mediate a covenant between God and men. All of the bi-lateral covenants between God and humanity in the Bible have been mediated just fine with a human serving as mediator. Why is a God-man a needed requirement for the new covenant?
Another good question. I also don't see why a God-man would be necessary.
If Jesus is begotten of God, wouldn't that mean that at some point in the past, he was unexisting? If Jesus has the same nature as God, I would think that would include immortality. Yet, Jesus did not receive immortality until after his resurrection. How can this be?
One could add that Jesus could not have possessed the divine nature when he was here on earth for a number of reasons, one of these reasons being that which the apostle Paul expressed at Romans 8:34: "Christ Jesus is the one who died" and in speaking about the resurrection of the dead, Paul also indicated with respect to Jesus' resurrection at 1 Corinthians 15:53 Jesus was "mortal," when he stated that "this which is mortal must put on immortality," which means that Jesus didn't receive immortality until after his death.
Gorwell wrote:
Jesus did not receive immortality until after his resurrection.
@brotherdan wrote:
The Bible never says this.
Really? Tell me this: If Jesus had immortality already, then it would not have been possible for anyone to have put him to death, now would it? Can someone immortal die, or do the words "immortal" and "immortality" mean something different in the English language than the equivalent words do in the Greek language?
It should be noted that, at 1 Timothy 6:16, the apostle Paul also described the resurrected Jesus Christ, as being "the one alone having immortality," and even the apostle John, at Revelation 1:17, 18, adds to this point in speaking about Jesus' death, saying that he was "the First and the Last" to be raised up and have immortality bestowed upon him by God. So if Jesus died, then he was a mortal human being and he couldn't have been immortal, but if it is after Jesus' resurrection that the Bible goes on to say that he became the one human being to have immortality, then how can you say that "the Bible never says this"?
@djeggnog