Yes, cognitivedizzy, marrying an unbeliever is not YET a df'ing offense. But they will find a way. To add, Joseph married an unbeliever, the daughter of an Egyptian priest of the Egyptian god On. Moses married a non-Israelite. So did Esther. No mention of that being bad. And the WTS is hypocritical if they say that there was no law against it for Moses and Joseph (though there was for Esther); remember Joseph was the one the WTS puts an example of doing what is right without a law from god.
Let me add the WTS dance around the issue of Esther.
Do they answer the question? No jw is suggesting that Mordecai was an opportunist for the sake of prestige. So the WTS uses ancient Jewish tradition to explain why it was alright? It seems unlikely (adding to the bible narrative?). So the Jews had to obey a godlike autocrat just as the 3 Hebrews obeyed the godlike autocrat Nebuchadnezzar? Hypocrisy.
Why did Mordecai allow Esther to marry a pagan unbeliever?
There is no basis for the suggestion of some scholars that Mordecai was an opportunist who wanted Esther to wed the king for the sake of prestige. As a faithful Jew, he would not have favored such a marriage. (Deut. 7:3) Ancient Jewish tradition holds that Mordecai tried to prevent the marriage. It seems unlikely that either he or Esther, mere foreigners in a land ruled by an autocrat who held a godlike status, would have had much choice in the matter. In time, it became clear that Jehovah used Esther’s marriage as a means of protecting his people.—Esther 4:14.