I just can't see the answer to this question. It may be obvious, so please forgive me if you think I'm silly for asking.
2 Corinthians 4 verse 4 in the NWT:
"among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through"
In the NWT reference bible, it is stated in a footnote that "the god" first mentioned is a translation of the Greek "ho theos". The insight book claims that use of a definate article (like in John 1:1) means that the god spoken of is "of divine nature". Three are other instances of "ho theos" referring to Jesus' divine nature, aren't there? Is Satan of divine nature?
This came up because a book I am reading suggests that this verse is referring to Jehovah as being the god of this system of things. Before anyone goes mad at this suggestion, consider first of all that the society admits that the phrase "this system of things" can be translated "order of things" (NWT reference bible, footnote to the verse). Was Paul suggesting that the old order of things, the mosaic law as given by Jehovah, was putting a veil over the illumination of the good news about the Christ in the mind of Jews?
Verse 3 says "If, now, the good news we declare is in fact veiled, it is veiled among those who are perishing". verse 4 "among whom the god of this system of things has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, that the illumination of the glorious good news about the Christ, who is the image of God, might not shine through "
verse 5 "For we are preaching, not ourselves, but Christ Jesus as Lord, and ourselves as your slaves for Jesus' sake".