Sorry for digging up an old topic, but I'm new here and have been reading through the posts from newest to oldest. JCanon seems to really enjoy throwing stats and numbers around to make it look as if all of these prophesies are scientific/mathematic... It can look rather convincing to the casual observer. Well, I saw this bit: [quote]The great tribulation happens during a 7-year period after 62 weeks into the final 490 years. We know when the final 490 years is, ending in 1996 and thus beginning in 1506 around the time Martin Luther became a monk and subsequently started the Protestant Movement, which was the beginning of the rebuilding of the temple. At any rate, 62 weeks do not end until 434 years later. 1506 + 434 brings us to 1940. So that 7-year tribulation where 2/3rds of the Jews were to be exterminated, not just soilders mind you, but the entire population, must ocur between 1940-1947. Think about that. This is a Christian world in 1947, a modern world, and this prophecy requires the entire general population to be deminished by two thirds. What other population during wartime would this have happened to? Usually the tragedies of war are the soldiers, right? Well it happened! Six million out of nine million were killed during this period to fulfill this prophecy. There was no other time when this could have happened to fulfill the chronology, and this event didn't happen at any other time[/quote] (sorry if my formatting is wrong, I'm unfamiliar with this kind of board) Now, this thing seems to hinge on your date of 1506, with regard to Martin Luther beginning the "rebuilding of the temple". This is a rather arbitrary choice of dates though. After all, he only began to actually think of challenging the authority of the Church (and that was only in the spirit of scholarly debate) at the EARLIEST in 1517, and officially in 1546! So if you take even the earlier date, then you get 1517 + 434, which brings us to 1951, after both the holocaust and the establishment of Israel. There was certainly no mass extermination of Jews in the 1950s. And if you take the official, 1546, date, you get 1980. Another random date. You really can twist vagaries in the Bible to make them "prophesy" anything you want them to. Also, (forgive me if i'm wrong but I'm new here and haven't read all of JCanon's post) why is the only external reference given always that www.geocities.com.saxerxes.... (or whatever it is)? Does no other *credible* literature back up these predictions? There are fundamnetalists in EVERY religion and cult who have numerical/statistical "proof" that their holy book, and ONLY theirs, is "divinely inspired".