Hello Joseph. I read through some points in the anti-Christ article. It is a complex discussion.
I won't comment on every point, but one of them would be that you can interpret some things in different ways where the ultimate meaning will compatible with varying views, so it would only be necessary to compare those views. For instance, when Christ says he will "raise up" his body after three days, that works as an angel he could materialize his body. Since other scriptures would come into play to deterimine this meaning or not, that reference would be considered inconclusive.
What I did find that I have an alternative opinion on is this statement you make:
When our Lord appears it will be in a body of flesh, Acts 1:11. And as "we the sons of God" have never experienced immortality "when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is." Fulfillment of this scripture must wait until that time when Acts 1:11 is fulfilled, but this will be a body of flesh, immortal, human "as he is" for that is how our Lord appeared to John after his crucifixion.
This is a complex reference and so it serves to quote the entire verse for the context: "1 John 3: 2 Beloved ones, now we are children of God, but as yet it has not been made manifest what we shall be. We do know that whenever he is made manifest we shall be like him, because we shall see him just as he is.
I believe this is a reference for those who see Christ at the second coming will be in the same type of body he is in, obviously, and thus they will see him just as he is at that time. That's because, Jesus' "as is" state at the time was as a spirit or in a materialized body. When Christ goes up into heaven he cannot take his materialized body with him, he must be in angelic form.
On the other hand, the first stage of the resurrection is back into the flesh since Christ and the anointed who are resurrected before the millennium will be back in the flesh. They do not get their spiritual bodies until man's last enemy death has been destroyed and that is not until after Judgment Day. That is, not until after all mankind have been judged and Death has been cast into the lake of fire, and that does not happen until after Satan has been let loose and then destroyed. That is when those in fleshly bodies along with Christ will be transformed into incorruptible spiritual bodies that can dwell in heaven.
However, the physical body that is contrasted with the spiritual body is not an immortal, incorruptible body, but an imperfect body. So when the Bible says that the resurrection is like a seed that is "sown into dishonor" or "sown into a physical body" that is literal. That means that those to be resurrected are placed into the imperfect physical bodies of other anointed ones and they remain that way until after the millennium is over and after Judgment Day is over. Since Christ himself will appear in an imperfect body as well, the body of the prodigal son and "Lazarus" at the second coming, of course those in the imperfect flesh will, as the scriptures say, be in the same type of body he has and also be able to see him just as he is.
Now as proof Christ will appear in the imperfect flesh at the second coming, is the second wave offering. Unleavened bread represents Christ's sinless body. Everybody knows that. Also everybody knows that the firstfruits represent Christ at the time of the two wave offerings. Well the first wave offering is without leaven and it is part of the celebration of the unfermented cakes. But the second wave offering is different. It is of two loaves with leaven. Leaven represents "sin" and imperfection and so the body of Christ at the second coming is correctly represented by a loaf with leaven.
Leviticus 23: 15 “‘And YOU must count for yourselves from the day after the sabbath, from the day of YOUR bringing the sheaf of the wave offering, seven sabbaths. They should prove to be complete. 16 To the day after the seventh sabbath YOU should count, fifty days, and YOU must present a new grain offering to Jehovah. 17 Out of YOUR dwelling places YOU should bring two loaves as a wave offering. Of two tenths of an e´phah of fine flour they should prove to be. They should be baked leavened, as first ripe fruits to Jehovah.
Now this, if anything, is completely fundamental. The unleavened bread represents the sinless body of Christ; thus the leavened bread represents the sinful body of Christ. Only the unleavened bread come first, representing the first coming, and the second wave offering of the firstfruits represents the second coming.
Now, Joseph, you'll love this! Few people other than yourself appreciate that Christ dies on Nisan 20th. But you do! As you know, Pentecost is 50 days from the 15th, and thus 45 days from the 20th. Christ's ministry over 3.5 years which included 43 lunar months thus can be compared to a period of 1290 days ending on the 20th. That means that Pentecost fulfills the "1335 days", a prophesy connected with the second coming. As you know, JWs used the "1335 days" prophecy to prophecy the second coming of Christ in connection with 1874, remember? So it's not a novice concept, whether one agrees with that interpretation or not, but since I know you're not into chronology, you'll have to accept my reference; chronology is not your area of expertise but it is mine.
Having noted that, obviously, not only are the two wave offerings not parallel but being different represent the difference between the first and second coming. There is no getting around the difference between the two firstfruit wave offerings and it begs for explanation, one that is clearly apparent. So that is all that is needed to establish that premise.
What we can do, though, is see if this is supported by any other reference in scripture, and it is. Case in point, Revelation, where we find a woman giving birth to the messiah at the time Satan is kicked out of heaven, and then that woman fleeing from Satan to a safe place prepared for her by God. The child is caught up to God in heaven after it is born. What can this mean? For one, we know this woman must be on the earth because that is where Satan has been cast. This woman, thus represents a special class of God's anointed servants. The child born to her, obviously, must be one of her members that becomes the messiah. But note where Jesus Christ is at this time. He's Michael the Archangel who along with his angelic host making up 2/3rds of the angels booted Satan out of heaven along with Satan's demon angels making up 1/3rd of the angels. But guess what?!!!! You have two messiahs going on here! So what gives? One archangel in heaven and one new messiah being born at the time Satan is cast out of heaven. Can we resolve this? Of course! There are indeed two messiahs at this time, but the infant messiah being caught to to God, to his "bosom position" means the two messiahs are combined. Thus this is Revelation's way of illustrating how the Christ in heaven takes up the imperfect body of one of his followers; one which further scriptures confirms is Lazarus and the prodigal son.
Finally, we know there is a critical difference between the first and second coming as the first time Christ dies once for all time for the sins of mankind. But the next time he arrives it is not in regard to sin. He arrives as a king-priest like Melchizedek. This is an important distinction between the first and second coming. Thus quite consistent with the setting of Jesus being represented as a king-priest by high-priest Joshua at Zechariah 3, we find the same scenario as the "prodigal son", where Joshua appears with befouled garments that need to exchanged for the "robes of state", just as the prodigal son is given new robes when he appears after a life of sin.
Zech 3: 3 Now as for Joshua, he happened to be clothed in befouled garments and standing before the angel. 4 Then he answered and said to those standing before him: “Remove the befouled garments from upon him.” And he went on to say to him: “See, I have caused your error to pass away from upon you, and there is a clothing of you with robes of state.” 5 At that I said: “Let them put a clean turban upon his head.” And they proceeded to put the clean turban upon his head and to clothe him with garments; and the angel of Jehovah was standing by.
The befouled garments represent his past sins, his receiving new robes represent his being forgiven, as this scripture clearly shows. You need only compare that to what happens to the prodigal son who arrives and is likewise given a grand new robe, "the best one", meaning the "robes of state", the robes of the heir to the kingdom:
The Prodigal Son Becomes the Messiah and gets new robes
Luke 15: 20 So he rose and went to his father. While he was yet a long way off, his father caught sight of him and was moved with pity, and he ran and fell upon his neck and tenderly kissed him. 21 Then the son said to him, ‘Father, I have sinned against heaven and against you. I am no longer worthy of being called your son. Make me as one of your hired men.’ 22 But the father said to his slaves, ‘Quick! bring out a robe, the best one, and clothe him with it, and put a ring on his hand and sandals on his feet. 23 And bring the fattened young bull, slaughter it and let us eat and enjoy ourselves, 24 because this my son was dead and came to life again; he was lost and was found.’ And they started to enjoy themselves.
See the similarity here? Zechariah is simply representing the nature of the second coming, where the prodigal son, represented by high-priest Joshua, an imperfect man with many past sins appears before Jehovah and Jehovah makes him the messiah.
But getting back to the issue of Christ's original body. Of course, he cannot materialize it any more after it had been offered in sacrifice. He gave up access to that perfect body and the right to have children by it. Logistically, therefore, there was the issue of how he would reappear in the flesh to rule as a king? Answer: One of his servants would be chosen to reincarnate Christ back into the flesh at the second coming. So after Christ rises to heaven, he lost his ability to materialize in the flesh again. The next time he would be seen in the flesh would be in the body of someone else. This was one reason why Christ, when reappearing over 40 days after his resurrection didn't just materialize in his same body or at least not the identifical appearance as before, but used different appearances. That's because that body would never be seen again and so his disciples wouldn't recognize him. In fact, part of the aspect of being like Melchizedek would even be that he wouldn't have a specific Jewish lineage! Thus just as the nation of Israel bowed down to God's king-priest Melchizedek when Abraham paid tithes, so in the end the Jews would again bow down to a non-Jew in the form of king-priest melchizek at the second coming, even though as Jesus Christ, he would have the legal right as a descendant of King David by virtue of his first coming through that line.
Now. If you don't have this understanding, then I'm wondering if you actually believe the Bible or not, right? But I'm wondering anyway since you dispise God's word by ignoring the chronology, right? Chronology is the "extra oil" of the wise virgins. You can't find your way clearly to the messiah without it.
So, Joseph, what you must do is to convince me that the difference between the two wave offerings, the first without leaven and the second with leaven are not fulfilled by Christ's body at the first and second coming, respectively. You can never. It's too obvious and direct. But I appreciate your opinion to dodge the issue if you wish like you dodge chronology. But denial is not a form of enlightenment.
JC
