Here are the questions I have gathered together. I will be answering them as time permits. Most have really already been answered in my initial post. However, I will reanswer them anyway.
Auldsoul: Did the prophecy of Daniel 4 say that a ruler of God's Kingdom would come forth at the end of the seven times? No. So, why do you interpret a second fulfillment into the prophecy where there is no indication of one?
Outside of application to the specific judgment prophecies wherein "a day for a year" is stipulated, the usage is completely unnecessary.
Are you aware that the word translated "weeks" in Daniel 9 literally means "weeks of years"?
"Iddan" does not have to mean more than 7 years. It can mean less than 7 years with equal facility. It can mean "measure of time", or "season" and if you were aware of this possibility prior to posting this false statement then your statement was sophistic. Were you aware that "iddan" can be less than a year, thirdwitness? If so, then you already knew your statement that "it must mean more than 7 years" was false, since you already knew of another possibility.
Q) Where in Daniel chapter 4 does it specifically say that the 7 times applies to God's rulership? (A) It doesn't say that anywhere in the Bible, much less in Daniel chapter 4.(Q) Where does the Bible specifically say that the tree dream in Daniel chapter 4 has any other application? (A) Nowhere. It isn't in the Bible, unless you include the Bound Volume "Talmud" of Jehovah's Witnesses as part of the Bible, which most JWs do.(Q) Do the passages in Ezekiel 17, 19, 21 and Revelation 12 and Isaiah 6 specifically comment on the passage from Daniel chapter 4 or specifically connect it to what these other chapters are saying? (A) No.
Midget: ThirdWitness: Seems to me that the Society is arbritary in how it picks and chooses which times are literal days and which are years. Am I correct in understanding how you responded to Steve and AuldSoul's query about this?
Jayhawk: How does the day for a year rule apply to the Gentile Times Prophecy? As another person has already said, the day for a year rule applied to only 2 prophecies listed in the Bible where it says that would be how it worked. Where is the day for a year rule in the Gentile Times Prophecy? How are we to know that rule is to be used? How are we to know if it is a figurative prophecy with figurative rules, or is it to be taken literally? Again, where are the text clues for the reader to use decernment?
And jayhawk says of what I wrote concerning applying a day for a year: I don't understand any of this.
Jayhawk: Watchtower's crap that they publish? Really? They are the biggest supporters of your Gentile Times Prophecy, are they not? Please explain why you say the Watchtower publishes crap.
cabasilas: But, does Daniel specifically say there is any other application to the tree dream? ...So, I think you've basically said that if we look at Daniel chapter 4 alone there is no specific application to anything other than what happened to Nebuchadnezzar. How do the "other scriptures" you cited "connect Daniel 4" to the interpretation you are proposing? Do any of them specifically connect Daniel 4? Yes, they use the same metaphor of trees but do they specifically connect Daniel 4? Are you interpreting from the text or reading into the text?
Fisherman: "In what way would another king be brought high in 537?" Consider 2 Kings 25:27,28 ...Couldn'dt EZ 21:26 apply before 537 on or about 607 finding fulfillent as stated in 2kings verse previously cited....Here is another possible interpretation of Ez 21:26,27 having nothing to do with the Getile times:Ezequiel was speaking with Zed:Put on high even waht was low- King Jehoichin abased in Babylon would be restored to honor.Bring low even the High one- Zedekiah occupying a high office would be degradedruin ruin ruin- impending disasterit will certainly become no one's (literally this also shall be no more) Even the restoration of the crown to Jehoiachin will only be temporary. The ultimate restoration will happen at an unspecified time in the future.....It is noteworthy that in 2Kings 24:17 , it was the King of Babylon that appointed King Zedikiah as King of Judah. Again in 2Kings 25:27,28 It was also the King of Babylon that restored king Jehoiachin to his throne AFTER King Zedekiah. According to Scripture KIng Jehoichin was the last King of Judah and not King ZED. This is significant because Jehoichin's throne should be consindered and Zed was not the last king of Judah according to scripture so it seems that Judah had a king after 607. Any takers?
ringo5 and hoping4change: Can you at least point to the specific post # that addresses that question, (considering you cannot arrive at any specific dates without using secular sources) since it is directly on topic with this thread?
ackack: Do JWs not use WW1 as proof of their 1914/607 logic?
hillarystep: I am putting on public record once again, that I have asked ThirdWitness numerous questions, including some on this thread and he has NEVER answered one of them.