i'm meeting with my dad tomorrow (prob for the last time) and i have been asking him different questions and one he has tried to answer is about praying to jesus, (as i brought up that at acts 7 stephen clearly did) id like to tell you what hes printed out for me as he wants a response tomorrow,
basiclly its all the same old :the scrips say jesus is the mediator we go to God THROUGH jesus (john-14:16, 1 tim-2:5,6)
in answering why stephen said 'lord jesus recieve my spirit' the wt says that God had caused stephen to see a heavenly vision (acts-7:54-59) he beheld the heavens open and saw jesus standing at gods right hand' so seeing jesus in vision stephen felt free to direct his request to him as the head of the cong,
that this is the correct conclusion can be seen from the fact that the only other instance in which such an expession is used in the bible is of a simliar nature when the apostle john saw jesus in vision and heard him say 'i am coming quickly' and john answered 'amen come lord jesus'
the wt concludes by saying that the only one to whom we can direct our prayers is godthis is because 'there is actually to us one God the father, out of whom all things are, and we for him, and there is one lord jesus christ, THROUGH whom all things are, and we through him,'
any one got any comebacks for that one?