The perplexing conundrum 607 b.c.e condensed down to ONE SIMPLE FACT

by Brother of the Hawk 83 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Larsinger58
    Larsinger58

    HI ANN:

    Hi Ann. Am I really that threatening?

    You're not threatening at all, m' favorite muppet. Irritating and long-winded, yes.

    Josephus claims a 70-year period from year 23 of Neb2 to the 1st of Cyrus. That's academic.

    That's what you have imagined in your brain. Josephus claims no such thing. We've been through this.

    The best you can do is call me crazy, because you certainly have no academic challenge to the chronology here.

    You mentally block out all the academic challenges I and others have given to you

    This is such a joke. I can't believe anyone is dishonest! But I suppose that is what Satan is out here doing -- this is his best shot. My only defense is quoting Josephus who clearly links the removal off the land with 70 years. So for those who just don't take your lying word for everything, here is his direct quote again so that anyone can make up their own mind:

    ANTIQUITIES 11:1:1. IN the first year of the reign of Cyrus (1) which was the seventieth from the day that our people were removed out of their own land into Babylon, God commiserated the captivity and calamity of these poor people, according as he had foretold to them by Jeremiah the prophet, before the destruction of the city, that after they had served Nebuchadnezzar and his posterity, and after they had undergone that servitude seventy years, he would restore them again to the land of their fathers, and they should build their temple, and enjoy their ancient prosperity.

    Now. Just when were his people removed out of their own land? Well, it would have to be the year of the last deportation, right? Right! That is confirmed to be year 23 of Nebuchadnezzar, both by Josephus as well as the Bible at Jer. 53:30, which says: "30 In the twenty-third year of Neb·u·chad·rez´zar, Neb·u´zar·ad´an the chief of the bodyguard took Jews into exile, seven hundred and forty-five souls."

    So here we have a reference of the Jews doing their own interpretation of when the 70 years took place! You don't want to deal with this, neither does COJ, so you use an old Freemasonry trick how to get out of an argument you can only loose, which is claim you already won the argument in the past and you're too frustrated and tired to do it again. ROFL! It's clever enough. Plus, this is just a different version of what the WTS does, which is once they label you as an "apostate" they tell you not to listen to you. That's all you're doing is saying "he's crazy, don't listen to him!" which is an effort to prevent others from discovering the truth, which clearly threatens you. Why bother trying to mischaracterize something this academic unless you had a vested interest in keeping people in the dark?

    Anyway, thanks for letting me know how dangerous and threatening this all is! It's very rewarding knowing I'm doing my job right.

  • AndDontCallMeShirley
    AndDontCallMeShirley

    Data-Dog

    nobody knew in advance the DAY or HOUR of the 2nd coming and we still don't! We just know it happened sometimes on December 25th or 26th, 1992.

    Huh? "Nobody knows, we still don't"....WE JUST KNOW it happened on Dec. 25 or 26, 1992.

    Which is it? Nobody knows? Or, it's the specific dates you just mentioned? This is a glaring contradiction.

    The "day" and "hour" does not mean you don't know the YEAR!

    And this is precisely why EVERY end-time prophecy promulgated by various religious groups has failed!

    AndD, just for your information, there are three things the WTS associate with 1914: 1) The end of the gentile times, 2) the 2nd coming, linked to 2520 years from the fall of Jerusalem per the "7 times" prophecy, and 3) the beginning of the "last generation" of 80 years.

    I am aware of this. Incidentally, WT originally taught that 1914 was the final end, Armageddon, not the beginning of the end. And it taught until 1943 that Jesus Returned invisibly in 1874.

    One one is correct, #3. The "last generation" begins with a world war, that is, "nation vs. nation and kingdom vs. kingdom," so 1914 is still a good year for the 'last generation which would see the second coming before that generation ended, which ends after 80 years at the most, in 1994 per Ps. 90:10. So that is ONE THING that is correct.

    Ah, the "generation" argument! WT has had 8 or 9 failed interpretations of the meaning of that word. Please don't say that you are talking about an "overlapping" generation! However, #3 in your explanation, is not correct either.

    Where in your Bible does is say that "generation" is linked to a world war? Mine doesn't say that. Jesus simply said "wars and reports of wars". Welcome the entire history of mankind.

    Where in your Bible does is say that a generation ends after "80 years at the most"? My Bible does not have that scripture in it, either. Psalm 90:10 is a general observation on human life, not a benchmark to prop "end time" prophecies on. Additionally, that scripture in no way says 80 years = a "generation", no matter how much you want it to.

    so 1914 is still a good year for the 'last generation

    again, wishful thinking, but you have no proof.

    I appreciate your comments and have no desire to get into a debate. You are certainly entitled to your opinions. However, you have fallen into the trap so many others have: you've glued a lot of speculations together, formed fictions you personally wish to be true, then made everything fit your pre-supposed outcome no matter how fanciful they are.

    Still, if we have simple explanations available for any who awaken, without dwelling on things that cannot be proven or disproven, then maybe it will help those learning TTATT.

    Agreed. And well said.

  • AndDontCallMeShirley
    AndDontCallMeShirley

    DATA-DOG

    Sorry! You are spot on.

    First a person must awaken. What causes that?! I don't know. Then they must love truth. The love of truth will lead them to see that the WTBT$ is not God's sole channel for salvation. Unless they see those things, any other info, however logical, is useless. Still, if we have simple explanations available for any who awaken, without dwelling on things that cannot be proven or disproven, then maybe it will help those learning TTATT.

    I was addressing my comments to Larsinger58. I got the two posts mixed up.

    My apologies, DATA-DOG

  • Londo111
    Londo111

    Lars, either as an elaborate joke or otherwise, proclaims himself to be the Messiah, anointed in a dumpster. He does present many alternate chronologies. Usually when I see his posts, unless I want a few laughs, I just move on. If he is serious, there is probably little good to argue—and if he is joking, it's likely best not to think too deeply about it.

    No offense, Lars!

    Here is one of his posts:

    http://www.jehovahs-witness.net/watchtower/beliefs/244776/2/Have-YOU-Had-a-SUPERNATURAL-Experience

  • sd-7
    sd-7

    I always figured Jeremiah 29 is the key to wiping the 607 date out. The Society claims the Jews were at Babylon for 70 years, but the message in Jeremiah 29 (from which 29:12 gives the Society their "seventy years at Babylon" based on their translation) was given to people taken into exile 10-11 years before Jerusalem was destroyed. Jer. 29:1-3 very clearly shows that the message was given to the exiles in Babylon by messengers who were sent by King Zedekiah, showing that Jerusalem had not yet been destroyed. Jeremiah referred to these earlier exiles as--you guessed it--exiles, and told them they would be "at" (or "for") Babylon for 70 years. So for them, the 70 years started well before Jerusalem was destroyed. Thus, the 70 years cannot have started in 607. End of story.

    --sd-7

  • Larsinger58
    Larsinger58
    PTERIST:Please show me EXACT scriptures that show the exiles that you are talking about, i.e. """"last deportastion (year 23 of Neb2)"""" because when this letter was written they were NOT in exile, show scriptures like I have done, if you want to claim Biblical authority and NOT secular (Josephus).

    Hi PT:

    Okay. Thanks for explaining yourself further and bearing with me.

    First of all, the more important issue for Jeremiah was not the exile but the laying desolate of the land. The land had to be laid desolate for 70 years to pay back its sabbaths. The exile to Babylon was incidental to the need to remove all the people off the land. So the 70 years for the land and the removal of the last deportees are the same 70 years. Here is the critical scripture that establishes this -- 2 Chronicles 36:

    20 Furthermore, he carried off those remaining from the sword captive to Babylon, and they came to be servants to him and his sons until the royalty of Persia began to reign; 21 to fulfill Jehovah’s word by the mouth of Jeremiah, until the land had paid off its sabbaths. All the days of lying desolated it kept sabbath, to fulfill seventy years."

    Okay, this is how I'm interpreting this. "Those remaining from the sword" is a reference to those who escaped from destruction when Nebuchadnezzar II went down to Egypt after the Jews who fled there refused to leave. Those who were left were to return, at least a short while to Judea as confirmed by Jeremiah 44:14 and 28:

    14 And there will come to be no escapee or survivor for the remnant of Judah who are entering in to reside there as aliens, in the land of Egypt, even to return to the land of Judah to which they are lifting up their soul[ful desire] to return in order to dwell; for they will not return, except some escaped ones.’”

    28 And as for the ones escaping from the sword, they will return from the land of Egypt to the land of Judah, few in number; and all those of the remnant of Judah, who are coming into the land of Egypt to reside there as aliens, will certainly know whose word comes true, that from me or that from them.”’”

    So the ones from Egypt who had escaped from the sword were the primary population, though quite small, who were in Judea in year 23 or Nebuchadnezzar II and they are the ones who made up the last deportation. These were the ones who when removed off the land allowed the land to become completely desolate and empty, without occupant and no one harvesting anything. During the time they were in Babylon, they would serve 70 years while the land paid back its sabbaths.

    Now Josephus simply reflects this by saying on the seventieth year after their removal from the land they returned in the 1st of Cyrus. His reference at Ant 11:1:1 is clearly a paraphrase of 1 Chronicles 36. Now we look at Zechariah 1:

    Zech 1:7 On the twenty-fourth day of the eleventh month, that is, the month She´bat, in the second year of Da·ri´us [the Mede], the word of Jehovah occurred to Zech·a·ri´ah the son of Ber·e·chi´ah the son of Id´do the prophet, saying:... 12 So the angel of Jehovah answered and said: “O Jehovah of armies, how long will you yourself not show mercy to Jerusalem and to the cities of Judah, whom you have denounced these seventy years?”

    This scripture notes that the 2nd year of Darius the Mede was the seventieth year after the "denunciation" of Jerusalem and the cities of Judah, meaning their destruction. Jehovah had not yet shown mercy to these cities, meaning, they were still desolated and uninhabited at this time; the Jews were thus still in exile in year 2 of Darius the Mede. That also means this was 3 years after Babylon had fallen. But how is it that the Jews were still in exile some 3 years after Babylon had fallen? The answer is in the specific reference to exactly when they would be released in 2 Chronicles. Note they were to remain in exile until the "royalty of Persia began to reign."

    Now this is something often missed. That is, if the last deportees were not deported until year 23 and were to serve 70 years and this was 4 years after Jerusalem fell, then 70 years after Jerusalem fell meant they still should have been in exile, which they were, and had 4 more years to go. That means that Darius the MEDE, who was the grandson of Nebuchadnezzar II and thus a legitimate Babylonian king, would rule for 4 more years before the Jews were let go. But this contradicts nothing, since Darius the MEDE was part of the "royalty of the MEDES" and not the "royalty of the PERSIANS." Cyrus the PERSIAN would not begin to rule over Babylon and thus the entire Medo-Persian Empire until Darius the Mede abdicated his kingship to Cyrus, which was after a 6-year rule. So only when Cyrus became king over all of Persia can it be said that the "royalty to PERSIA began to rule" and that is who released the Jews in his first year -- Cyrus the PERSIAN and not Darius the MEDE.

    So it was not when Babylon was conquered by Darius the Mede and Cyrus that the Jews were released, but not until a 6-year rule of Darius the Mede occurred. During the time the "royalty of the Medes" were ruling, the Jews were still in exile, wondering when God would show mercy to Jerusalem and the cities of Judah. But then Cyrus became the ultimate king over all the empire and all the other "kings" of the smaller countries took up the title of "governor." There would now be only one king and one royal family. But it was at this critical point that the 70 years of exile of the last deportees ended and they returned.

    So in reality, Zechariah 1:12 directly contradicts your notion that the 70 years of exile referred to Jehoiachin and those deported at the end of year eight of Nebuchadnezzar II. That's because the exile had not ended even 70 years after the fall of Jerusalem, which is dated to year 2 of Darius the Mede. This means Darius the Mede ruled for six years before Cyrus the PERSIAN came to the throne and that is when he released the Jews and many others in his first year.

    So you see what a dilemma I'm in. Knowing this, there is no way the Bible and the revised secular records can be harmonized, even if COJ tries to round off 70 years to 66 years in his notion that this referred to some type of Babylonian domination.

    To contradict this, you have to claim that 2 Chronicles does not confirm that the land was to be desolated to pay back its sabbaths for a full 70 years in connection with the "escaped ones" who were deported, which is a reference to those who had ran down to Egypt and now had returned to Judea. These are more direct scriptures than you quoting Matthew.

    I respect your position and how you want to interpret this if you want, but my hands are tied.

    Even so, just as a reminder, the VAT4956 requires us to date year 37 of Neb II to 511 BCE. It's not an academic option. A lot of people are not there yet, but its waiting there for them when they get serious and real about ancient history.

    Thanks for your input. It is good to understand another view, even if in the end we still "agree to disagree."

  • Larsinger58
    Larsinger58

    ANDDONT:

    The "day" and "hour" does not mean you don't know the YEAR!

    And this is precisely why EVERY end-time prophecy promulgated by various religious groups has failed!

    LARS:

    Well, this one didn't! The chosen elect involved with the logistics of the 2nd coming, that is, the "two witnesses" observed the 2nd coming at this time. So this time it came true! But this is the only time it could have come true. Remember, Christ must fulfill the 70th week and that was FIXED when Christ first arrived in 29 CE when he was baptized. So that fixes the 70th week for our time from 1989-1996. Christ fulfills the second half of the 70th week at the 2nd coming, so he cannot arrive more than a year prior to mid-week passover, April 6, 1993. That is, he has to appear within less than a year from April 6, 1993 so that this passover is both his first since his arrival and the very last celebrated.

    So the Bible does require the YEAR of the 2nd coming to be fulfilled during the 70th week as well as the year of the first coming. Once we understand this, then the "7 times" prophecy is also locked in as far as the year of the fall of Jerusalem, which has to be 529 BCE. Funny to me, you can come up with that dating several different ways now, independently of the Bible or the dating via 29 CE. But why shouldn't that be expected? If truly the original timeline was changed, then there should be some evidence of that, whether or not there is evidence of the original timeline. But it turns out through astronomy the original timeline was well documented and so now we can use the VAT4956 and other eclipses to confirm the original timeline. The VAT4956 confirms 511 BCE for year 37 of Neb2, and the SK400 confirms year 7 in 541 BCE. There is no where to go from here except into denial. 587 BCE for the fall of Jerusalem is simply part of the revised timeline, which includes 539 BCE for the fall of Bablon whith the WTS uses. So 607 BCE is also based on the revised timeline and so is wrong.

    Now this might be a disaster for 1914 and for the secular chronologists since all of their lies and manipulations will be looked at once this timeline is finally considered credible. But that will not affect the Bible or Bible prophecy, other than confirming it! 529 BCE has always been the Biblical date for the fall of Jerusalem, and now we can prove that with the VAT4956 and the SK400 and other astronomical "diaries" that are out there. So far there are three diaries that can be used to date back to the original timeline, but you only need one to confirm the original timeline.

    In fact, likely the primary reason why you don't see the academic world embracing the original timeline is because over the centuries so many institutions who knew about this kept covering it up, so that will all be exposed, including the Pope and the Catholic church and Jewish rabbis.

    Now, don't forget the Jewish rabbis have never lost track of the original timeline, but because they need to deny Christ, it is a clear conflict of interest for them to acknowledge the true timeline which points to the messiah appearing precisely when Jesus did.

  • Larsinger58
    Larsinger58
    ANDDON'T: Where in your Bible does is say that "generation" is linked to a world war? Mine doesn't say that. Jesus simply said "wars and reports of wars". Welcome the entire history of mankind.

    ROFL! Oh no. No wonder you are not following this. Okay. Let's go to the scriptures and see how this happens. There are certain signs that were given in the form of events that were to happen leading up to the second coming. The Bible then notes that when you hear of wars and reports of wars to ignore this. But then it notes a world war that would occur and that becomes the first sign of "this generation":

    MATT 24: 6 YOU are going to hear of wars and reports of wars; see that YOU are not terrified. For these things must take place, but the end is not yet. 7 “For nation will rise against nation and kingdom against kingdom... these are the beginnings of the pangs of distress."

    So just wars and reports of wars, meaning small conflicts between nations, are of little concern. But the beginnings of the pangs of distress would involved a world war, where you have nations vs. nation and kingdom vs. kingdom in a world conflict. Thus a world war begins the last generation.

    Where in your Bible does is say that a generation ends after "80 years at the most"? My Bible does not have that scripture in it, either. Psalm 90:10 is a general observation on human life, not a benchmark to prop "end time" prophecies on. Additionally, that scripture in no way says 80 years = a "generation", no matter how much you want it to.

    Psalms 90:10 says a generation is 70 years or 80. So I just said, per the Bible, we can use 70 or 80 years to define a "generation," that is, the average life or standard life of an individual. So if we apply 70 years to 1914 it gives us 1984 as the year before which the second coming would occur. But per 1947, the 2nd coming occurs between November 30, 1992 and November 30, 1993, so 70 years is not long enough. So we use the longer option of 80 years from Psalms to extend that generation Biblically to 1994. Of course, mid-week passover of the 70th week, which is from 1989-1996 occurs on April 6, 1993. So Christ must arrive before this to eat the final passover/Memorial. But 1993 is still a year prior to 1994. So the prophecy as interpreted and applied is fulfilled in this case.

    Now, you may decide that WWI was no different than any other conflict even though historically it is called "World War I." Or you can claim you see no relevance to a natural generation or life of a person for 70 or 80 years. But that's YOUR interpretation of these things. I'm simply sharing how a different interpretation of these things works out. That is, if 80 years is applied to a generation that begins with a world conflict, then the 2nd coming needs to occur before 80 years, thus before 1994. Since we know the original year for year 19 of Nebuchadnezzar II from the VAT4956 was 529 BCE, if you want to use that as a secular reference, then the 2nd coming must occur in 1992. So there is no conflict in these two interpretations and we of the chosen elect see this as fulfillment of these prophesies.

    So when you have the truth and you're an"insider" then all the prophecies work out perfectly, to the very year and consistently to the same year!

    Based on 29 CE, 455 BCE begins this prophecy, which must be dated to the 1st of Cyrus. In that case 70 years earlier datesthe last deportation, year 23, to 525 BCE and the fall of Jerusalem to 529 BCE, which dates the 2nd coming to 1992. That's the Biblical timeline.

    Or you can use the VAT4956 which dates year 37 to 511 BCE and thus year 19 to 529 BCE. Same result, 1992.

    Or you can use archaeology where the fall of Jericho by Joshua is dated beetween 1350-1325 BCE, which forces us to date the Exodus between 1390-1365 BCE and thus during the reign of Amenhotep III and Amenhotep IV. Since the Exodus ends the rule of the ruling pharaoh in the Red Sea, the 1st year of Amenhotep IV (Akhenaten) is the correct date for the Exodus. An astronomical text dated to year 12 of Akhenaten points to a solar eclipse event occurring in 1375 BCE. In that case, we can date the first of Akhenaten 11 years earlierto 1386 BCE. The Exodus is exactly 19 jubilees prior to the return from Babylon. 19 x 49 = 931; 1386 - 931 = 455 BCE. So when 455 BCE dates the 1st of Cyrus, again, 70 years earlier dates year 13 of Neb2 to 525 BCE and the fall of Jerusalem to 529 BCE and the 2nd coming to 1992!

    OR, we can end the 1290 days in 1947, when the Jews officially come out of exile. That ends the transgression of the Jews on the heels of the "great tribulation" which was the Holocaust! In that case, the 2nd coming occurs 45 years later and thus in 1992, to fulfill the "1335 days."

    OR, you can use the SK400 which matches 541 BCE for "year 7" of Nebuchadnezzar II, matching year 37 in 511 BCE from the VAT4956. Again, year 19 would fall in 529 BCE which gives you 1992 for the year of the second coming.

    So this is a very done deal at this point. There is no way the elect is going to ignore all of this or avoiding laughing at CO Jonsson claiming that the 70 years of domination works for the length of the Neo-Babylonian period when we round off the 70 years to just 66 years. That's just a big JOKE! If you can round off stated amounts of time then any prophecy will work! This is just desperation to avoid a direct conflict between what the Bible's timeline is and the world's favorite revised timeline for this period.

  • Larsinger58
    Larsinger58

    Londo111:

    Lars, either as an elaborate joke or otherwise, proclaims himself to be the Messiah, anointed in a dumpster. He does present many alternate chronologies. Usually when I see his posts, unless I want a few laughs, I just move on. If he is serious, there is probably little good to argue—and if he is joking, it's likely best not to think too deeply about it."

    LARS:

    Now here is what gets me. Here this person is "laughing" at the information I'm presenting, but there's nothing to laugh at. You know? One of my notes of reference is something like this, which you can look up and that is on the net, regarding "The Delian Problem":

    ONE SOURCE:

    History

    The problem owes its name to a story concerning the citizens of Delos, who consulted the oracle at Delphi in order to learn how to defeat a plague sent by Apollo. [2] According to Plutarch [3] it was the citizens of Delos who consulted the oracle at Delphi, seeking a solution for their internal political problems at the time, which had intensified relationships among the citizens. The oracle responded that they must double the size of the altar to Apollo, which was a regular cube. The answer seemed strange to the Delians and they consulted Plato, who was able to interpret the oracle as the mathematical problem of doubling the volume of a given cube, thus explaining the oracle as the advice of Apollo for the citizens of Delos to occupy themselves with the study of geometry and mathematics in order to calm down their passions. [4]

    According to Plutarch, Plato gave the problem to Eudoxus and Archytas and Menaechmus, who solved the problem using mechanical means, earning a rebuke from Plato for not solving the problem using pure geometry (Plut., Quaestiones convivalesVIII.ii, 718ef). This may be why the problem is referred to in the 350s BC by the author of the pseudo-Platonic Sisyphus (388e) as still unsolved. [5] However another version of the story says that all three found solutions but they were too abstract to be of practical value [citation needed] .

    HERE'S ANOTHER REFERENCE:

    Doubling the Cube

    Doubling the Cube, the most famous of the collection, is often referred to as the Delian problem due to a legend that the Delians had consulted Plato on the subject. In another form, the story asserts that the Athenians in 430 B.C. consulted the oracle at Delos in the hope to stop the plague ravaging their country. They were advised by Apollo to double his altar that had the form of a cube. As a result of several failed attempts to satisfy the god, the pestilence only worsened and at the end they turned to Plato for advice.

    Now these are two different historical references discussing this and putting Plato in the middle of this. The dating is 430 BCE. Now do you see anything wrong with this historical account? Let's look up Plato so see when he was born:

    Plato

    Plato: copy of portrait bust by Silanion
    Bornc. 428–427 BC [ 1 ]
    Athens
    Diedc. 348–347 BC (aged c.  80 )
    Athens

    NOW do you see the problem here? Plato was not burn until 428 BCE and yet he is being consulted to solve a math problem 2 years earlier in 430 BCE!

    Now I look at something like this and wonder why nobody has noticed this is impossible! Or I read a post from you where you're laughing at me and I'm the one laughing at YOU because you think that Plato can be consulted before he was born! So it doesn't matter that you're laughing at me, because you don't know the research, you don't know all that is involved here. Plus since you have decided to judge the information beforehand, you don't bother reading anything so you learn nothing and you remain ignorant. So I'm laughing at you because you don't remain informed. Yet, you want me to believe Plato was consulted in 430 BCE 2 years before he was born? Now which one of us is the "looney" here? It ain't me, so it must be YOU!

    Now what you should do next is ask Ann O'Maly to explain how can Plato be consulted in 430 BCE, 2 years before he was born and see what she says.

    This is part of the problem with JWs. They don't see many errors because they don't really know what they believe as JWs in the first place. They don't think! Now these references work just fine for Plato for the average person, because they don't know enough about Plato to know when he was born. So it works just fine. That's how COJ gets away with convincing so many people about the popular timeline. He presents half the information to you and you become convinced based on that. He doesn't deal with the critical Bible vs. secular issues. He wants to keep it SIMPLE as someone claimed. But its not simple. Not if you want the truth.

    So you go right ahead and laugh and think that Plato was consulted in 430 BCE 2 years before he was born since you're smart enough to not bother reading my posts. That's fine with me. I'm comfortable with not accepting it and require a correction. Of course, the true date for the PPW is 403 BCE when Plato would have been 25 years of age. The revisions in the timeline though create these contradictions. But educators know few people are paying attention so they laugh at the world at large when they post things like Plato being consulted in 430 BCE knowing full well he was born in 428 BCE. But who is THINKING out there. The WTS does exactly the same thing. They likely find lots of little errors they have made, but then they realize nobody noticed in the first place, thus nobody is really paying attention to what they say or analyzing what they say, so they can just sound good and get away with anything! Or we have people like you who think all this is funny but haven't read the information. ?? It's just a joke. But the joke is not on me -- it's on YOU.

  • Larsinger58
    Larsinger58
    So for them, the 70 years started well before Jerusalem was destroyed. Thus, the 70 years cannot have started in 607. End of story.

    The seventy years are mentioned in Jeremiah 25, but it is more specific to the desolation of the land. The land of the north and south must be desolated for 70 years and all the nations removed out of the land. So that prophecy is linked with not only the destruction of Jerusalem occurring first, but all the other nations being taken into exile while the land paid back its sabbaths for 70 years. Thus the 70 years could only apply to those who were last deported out of the land and when the land was finally totally desolated.

    So writing to those still not yet in exile about this prophecy included the detail of the 70 years of the land becoming completely desolated even before the 70 years began. Thus the presumption that the 70 years had begun for them already in exile didn't mean they would not be in exile even longer than 70 years.

    Now it could be that some were wondering when they would return from exile. The first deportees included Daniel in the accession year of Nebuchadnezzar II. That means in year 19 of Nebuchadnezzar II when Jerusalem fell, the exile of the earliest deportee was just 20 years. So maybe this was sent to them to remind them that per the prophecy the Jews needed to be in exile at least 70 years, which even if had begun with Daniel was no where near being up. But if they were following the precise description of the 70 years, they also knew that the land had to be completely devastated first and that ALL had to be at Babylon before those 70 years began. We can speculate on how the Jews receiving this information understood it, but one way would be that they were being told that they had to be deported and serve at Babylon for 70 years before they would be brought back, which is precisely the case. The 70 years precisely begins not with the first deportees, but the very last ones. So there is nothing specific that suggests this prophecy, which was already written, was a direct message to the Jews still at-large and in the land that they considered the 70 years to have already begun, which contradicts the specifics of the scripture.

    But it is still true that knowing the exiles would have to serve Babylon for 70 years, and they were applying this to themselves generally, that is, to those deported in year 8 of Nebuchadnezzar with Jehoiachin, they would not expect to return before 70 years had transpired. So it is not a contradiction that those deported in year 8 would serve 70 years. They did! Only they served 70 years PLUS! But the specific 70 years in the context of Jeremiah 25 is one where the land was desolate and all the nations were deported, so there is really no legitimate reason to think the specific prophecy of the 70 years was connected with the deportation of Jehoiachin.

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