Thanks Apog and all for the comments and insights.
I'm a little confused by this one:
Have they changed John 8:58. Apart from the disputed theology, "I was" has been criticised as simply poor English. Has it been altered to "I have been" or rephrased altogether?
Good guess, slimboyfat. This verse now indeed ends "I have been"!
because in the NWT I have it has always read 'I have been'. The one I have is the 1984 study version.