Jewish and Hellenistic culture referred to subordinate divine beings as “gods” and it is clear that John was using the word in this sense, the same as Philo, and later Justin Martyr, Origen and others, to refer to a “second god” or “divine being” who is subordinate the one true God.
Any fair reading of the gospel of John as a whole results in the conclusion that Jesus is distinct and subordinate to God.
Jesus said plainly in John 17.3 that the Father is “the only true God”. It is stretching language and logic beyond what it can bear to assert that what Jesus really meant is: “you are the only true God and so am I.” Has anyone who has ever said “you are the only (something)” ever meant to imply that they themselves are that something as well? Nobody reading the gospel of John without any knowledge of Trinitarian dogma would ever reach that conclusion by themselves. It’s complete nonsense.