Matthew 24:14 and Preaching in the First Century

by Leolaia 35 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia

    The eschatological discourse in Matthew 24 (derived from Mark 13 and paralleled in Luke 21) concerns the destruction of Jerusalem and what was to shortly follow it. Mark presents both the Jerusalem invasion and the coming of the Son of Man in judgment as closely connected, which reflects the time when the gospel was likely written (i.e. shortly before or after AD 70). Some time has passed by the time Matthew was written (most likely around AD 80-100), and thus Matthew 24:27-25:30 adds a series of parables explaining the apparent "delay" (missing in Mark), and rephrases the disciples' question in Matthew 24:3 to explicitly refer to the "end of the world" because the reply to the original question in Mark simply assumed that the end would come along with the destruction of Jerusalem. Thus Matthew acknowledges the apparent delay of the parousia, and yet indicates that it would not be for very long -- for it would still occur in the lifetime of those who heard Jesus (cf. Matthew 10:23, 16:28, 24:34).

    The actual wording in Matthew 24:14 is: "And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached throughout the whole world, as a testimony to the nations, and then the end will come". The "end" referred to here is the same "end of the world" mentioned in the disciples' question in v. 3. Just as the disciples' question was reshaped by the author of Matthew to reflect a separate time for the "end of the world", so is v. 14 a Matthean redaction of the original phrasing in Mark 13:10: "And the gospel must first be preached to all nations". Note that the original wording did not refer to an "end", and it was followed by a description of the presecution that Christians endured for their efforts. As mentioned above, the "end" was not thought to be a time in the distant future (like, say, the 21st century), but within the lifetime of those who heard Jesus. The author of Matthew also had no concept of "inhabited earth" (oikoumené) being any larger than what was known in his own day (e.g. the Roman Empire). In this connection, Paul also believed that in his day the gospel had already been spread throughout the whole inhabited earth:

    "Not everyone, of course, listens to the Good News. As Isaiah says, 'Lord, how many believed what we proclaimed?' So faith comes from what is preached, and what is preached comes from the word of Christ. Let me put the question: Is it possible that they did not hear? Indeed, they did; in the words of the psalm, 'Their voice has gone out through all the earth, and their message to the ends of the world' " (Romans 10:16-18).

    In the same epistle, Paul referred to his "apostolic mission to preach the obedience of faith to all pagan nations (en pasin tois ethnesin) in honor of his name ... your faith is spoken of all over the world (en holó tó kosmó)" (1:5, 8). As early as 1 Thessalonians, Paul said that "the word of the Lord started to spread -- and not only throughout Macedonia and Achaia, for the news of your faith has spread everywhere (en panti topó), we do not need to tell other people about it" (1:8). Similarly, Paul writes in Colossians 1:5, 23 that "the Good News which has reached you is spreading all over the world (en panti tó kosmó) ... [and] has been preached to all creation under heaven (en pasé ktisei té hupo ton ouranon)". These statements were made even tho clearly the Christian gospel had not yet reached the frigid reaches of Siberia, the plains of the Americas, the isles in Polynesia, or the aborigines of Australia. Similarly, when Acts 2:5 says that "there were devout men living in Jerusalem from every nation under heaven (apo pantos ethnous tón hupo ton ouranon)," the author certainly didn't mean to say that there were Chinese, Sioux Indians, Eskimos, and aborigines living in Jerusalem in AD 33. Thus, there is no reason to interpret Matthew 24:14 as demanding a greater preaching area than was covered by first-century Christians, for expressions like "all the inhabited world" were commonly used to refer to what was already accomplished or being accomplished in the time of the apostles.

    And since Matthew expected the end to come very soon in the first century or early second century (cf. Matthew 10:23, 16:28, 24:34), the reference was certainly not to a future preaching work many centuries later.

  • truthseeker
    truthseeker

    Excellent points Leolaia, I have often wondered about this myself.

    For instance, when Jesus is telling his disciples about the destruction of Jerusalem, there is no demarkation between the end of the "current Jewish system of things" and the end of the world when Christ comes.

    Matthew 24:

    1 And Jesus went out, and departed from the temple: and his disciples came to him for to shew him the buildings of the temple. 2 And Jesus said unto them, See ye not all these things? verily I say unto you, There shall not be left here one stone upon another, that shall not be thrown down. 3 And as he sat upon the mount of Olives, the disciples came unto him privately, saying, Tell us, when shall these things be? and what shall be the sign of thy coming, and of the end of the world? 4 The disciples asked Jesus about the "end of the world" for that is what they perceived that God and his son would bring. And Jesus answered and said unto them, Take heed that no man deceive you. 5 For many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ; and shall deceive many. 6 And ye shall hear of wars and rumours of wars: see that ye be not troubled: for all these things must come to pass, but the end is not yet. 7 For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers places. 8 All these are the beginning of sorrows. 9 Then shall they deliver you up to be afflicted, and shall kill you: and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name's sake. 10 And then shall many be offended, and shall betray one another, and shall hate one another. 11 And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many. 12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold. 13 But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved. 14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come. 15 When ye therefore shall see the abomination of desolation, spoken of by Daniel the prophet, stand in the holy place, (whoso readeth, let him understand:) 16 Then let them which be in Judaea flee into the mountains: 17 Let him which is on the housetop not come down to take any thing out of his house: 18 Neither let him which is in the field return back to take his clothes. 19 And woe unto them that are with child, and to them that give suck in those days! 20 But pray ye that your flight be not in the winter, neither on the sabbath day: The above is fairly accurate concerning the time of Jerusalem's destruction, there were wars, famines and earthquakes. The abomination were the Roman armies invading Jerusalem. ....................... Below is the blurring of what would happen next. Does the part below signify a "new tribulation"? It is obvious that what happened below did not happen in Jerusalem at the time.... 21 For then shall be great tribulation, such as was not since the beginning of the world to this time, no, nor ever shall be. 22 And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake those days shall be shortened. 23 Then if any man shall say unto you, Lo, here is Christ, or there; believe it not. 24 For there shall arise false Christs, and false prophets, and shall shew great signs and wonders; insomuch that, if it were possible, they shall deceive the very elect. 25 Behold, I have told you before. 26 Wherefore if they shall say unto you, Behold, he is in the desert; go not forth: behold, he is in the secret chambers; believe it not. 27 For as the lightning cometh out of the east, and shineth even unto the west; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. 28 For wheresoever the carcase is, there will the eagles be gathered together. 29 Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken: 30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. 31 And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other. 32 Now learn a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh: 33 So likewise ye, when ye shall see all these things, know that it is near, even at the doors. 34 Verily I say unto you, This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled. 35 Heaven and earth shall pass away, but my words shall not pass away. 36 But of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only. 37 But as the days of Noe were, so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. 38 For as in the days that were before the flood they were eating and drinking, marrying and giving in marriage, until the day that Noe entered into the ark, 39 And knew not until the flood came, and took them all away; so shall also the coming of the Son of man be. 40 Then shall two be in the field; the one shall be taken, and the other left. 41 Two women shall be grinding at the mill; the one shall be taken, and the other left. 42 Watch therefore: for ye know not what hour your Lord doth come. 43 But know this, that if the goodman of the house had known in what watch the thief would come, he would have watched, and would not have suffered his house to be broken up. 44 Therefore be ye also ready: for in such an hour as ye think not the Son of man cometh. This chapter in Matthew always confused me. Jesus never made a demarcation between the Jewish tribulation and the next. Matthew 24:21 onwards doesn't appear to flow in sync with the verses before it. So you may have a point about Matthew adding on stuff to explain the apparent delay in the end of the world. Also, Paul admitted that the holy spirit did not permit him to preach in Asia, so how could he say that the good news had been preached in all creation under heaven?

  • truthseeker
    truthseeker

    Another thing I sometimes think about is, did the apostles share notes when they were writing their Gosepl accounts? How could some parts of the gospels be virtually identical to each other, with so few "other" accounts?

    Let's look at the timeline.

    Jesus warns his apostles that when they see the Roman armies surrounding Jerusalem, they should run to the mountains.

    And so they did, we presume, because they wrote their accounts later.

    Jerusalem is destroyed in 70AD, Masada in 73AD.

    End of tribulation, end of the "current Jewish system of things."

    Really, the only thing that ended was the Jewish priesthood and the destruction of their birth certificates.

    Prior to this time, Paul had already declared the preaching work as good as done.

    then what?

    1st century comes, Christians get persecuted, beaten, flogged and fed to the lions

    Two centuries later, Christianity becomes the romans defacto religion.

    and so all of the events of the first century, though not forgotten, are not exactly "fresh" in people's minds. the Jewish way of life did not end.

    BTW, does anyone know how the whole nation of Israel was doing, when Jerusalem was destroyed?

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia
    This chapter in Matthew always confused me. Jesus never made a demarcation between the Jewish tribulation and the next. Matthew 24:21 onwards doesn't appear to flow in sync with the verses before it. So you may have a point about Matthew adding on stuff to explain the apparent delay in the end of the world.

    The two events are mentioned together, and the end was expected to come in the lifetime of the author as Matthew 10:23, 16:28, 24:34 make clear. However, when you compare Matthew with one of its primary sources (Mark), the most striking thing is that the distress of Jerusalem and the other end-time events are even less distinguished from each other, and all the material in Matthew explaining away the "delay" between the two (Matthew 24:27-25:30) is wholly lacking in the parallel passage in Mark. This is a clear sign of modification of the older text.

    Another thing I sometimes think about is, did the apostles share notes when they were writing their Gosepl accounts? How could some parts of the gospels be virtually identical to each other, with so few "other" accounts?

    There is no evidence that the gospels were written by apostles. Their present titles come from later tradition and were not part of the gospels themselves; the books are themselves anonymous. Moreover, the traditional authorship of Mark and Luke is not even apostolic; John Mark and Luke were disciples of apostles, not apostles themselves. As for much of the gospels being "virtually identical to each other", this is because they are dependent on each other and on mutual sources. The author of Luke himself noted that earlier gospel accounts lay before him (Luke 1:1-4). About 90% of Mark is reproduced in Matthew and 50% in Luke, usually in the same order, and agreement between Luke and Matthew starts when Mark starts and ends where Mark ends. The gospels of Matthew and Luke are little more than expanded interpolated versions of Mark. As for the common material shared between Matthew and Luke that is not found in Mark, there are two usual explanations of this: the author of Luke used Matthew (the Farrer-Goodacre theory), or both authors used a common source (the popular Q theory). Also note that since Matthew incorporates most of the text of Mark, the traditional claim that Matthew is an eyewitness account by Apostle Matthew is considerably weakened.

    BTW, does anyone know how the whole nation of Israel was doing, when Jerusalem was destroyed?

    I'm not sure what you mean. Israel itself did not exist, it was an ideological concept at the time of a future eschatologically regathered Israel. As for Judah, its condition at the time of the war is amply described by Josephus. After the war, the Sadducee group was effectively extinct and many of the Pharisees relocated to Syria; Judah itself waited until to 130s to go at a second try for independence.

    Also, Paul admitted that the holy spirit did not permit him to preach in Asia, so how could he say that the good news had been preached in all creation under heaven?
    The statement in Acts 16:6 pertains only to one trip through Asia Minor; that there were, in fact, churches in "Phyrgia and Asia Minor" is suggested by 18:23, as well as the letters of Galatians, Colossians, Ephesians, and the latter Johannine letters to the churches of Ephesus, Laodicea, Smyrna, Pergamum, etc. in Revelation.
  • Terry
    Terry

    The Jews were born to other Jews. The minute the baby opened its eyes they were under a convenant. That convenant was with God. God told them he had not made the covenant with any other people.

    So, Jews did not (and still don't) seek converts. Their flesh and blood identity was the guarantee of the covenant relationship with God. The circumcision of males was the outward signal that they accepted the covenant.

    Pre-Jesus the Jews always figured prosperity was the PROOF God was blessing them. Disaster was PROOF God was punishing them.

    Their covenant told them eventually everything would come down to THEM as a people with a King (Messiah) and a priesthood that would grant them forgiveness for any blemish in front of the eyes of their god.

    When Jesus came and then died he was JUST ONE MORE false messiah to them.

    Paul came along and picked up the pieces of a movement that had gained some special attention among Jews.

    1st he claimed to be chosen DIRECTLY by the RESURRECTED Jesus. This gave him authority to offer his opinions and theories with credibility.

    Secondly, he changed certain views, doctrines, orthodoxies and used Jesus' divinity as the excuse for being able to do it.

    Paul got into trouble over and over with the Jesus-influenced branch of Judaism in Jerusalem who were monitoring (often with horror) the crazy innovations in his preaching.

    Paul would pretend to go along with anyone who criticized him (all things to all people).

    The only hope for a religious movement so small and unconnected to power was to do one of three things:

    1.Assimilate into larger pre-established groups where there was safety in numbers. (Paul's strategy by grafting Judaism on to Jesus-influenced messianic groups.)

    2.Win converts among the more powerful Gentiles (who would have prestigious political connections) and infiltrate policy-making. (Constantine's government was infected with politicos with this rationale.)

    3.Make war upon Rome and force God's hand in defending them by making good on his promise. (The rebels who fought and died in Jerusalem and Masada).

    Only the conversion and assimilation strategy had any chance of success.

    Once the militant Jews were wiped out; there was only the two strategies left.

    Eventually, actual messianic Judaism was eroded into a mechanical pretense by usurping christian bishops.

    PREACHING per se had little to do with the spread of Christianity. It was the power of the Roman government and the outposts of the Catholic Church backed up by the threat of the sword which won "converts" for over a thousand years.

    This idea that Jehovah's Witnesses have that preaching works is just silly.

    Politics and threats win converts and nothing else.

    How many of us came into the Watchtower Organization from being contacted at the door?

    Most of us were gradually influenced by friends, family or simply being born into the religion.

    Evangelism is a myth.

    T.

  • Alwayshere
    Alwayshere

    Leolaia, that has been my thought for about 3 years.You can see the truth once you get out of that cult.

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia
    PREACHING per se had little to do with the spread of Christianity. It was the power of the Roman government and the outposts of the Catholic Church backed up by the threat of the sword which won "converts" for over a thousand years.

    That's true for later centuries, but that has nothing to do with the NT texts which were written in the first century when Christianity was still a relatively tiny movement at odds with Roman authorities at various times.

    My point in this thread is that Matthew 24:14 does not assume a massive worldwide preaching campaign like the WTS thinks. First-century Christians believe that the gospel had already been sent to "all creation" to "all the nations of the earth", yes, even at a time when the movement was still relatively tiny in size and with a scope only within the Roman Empire, or even around the Mediterranean basin.

  • Terry
    Terry
    That's true for later centuries, but that has nothing to do with the NT texts which were written in the first century when Christianity was still a relatively tiny movement at odds with Roman authorities at various times.

    How certain are you that what we have in scripture was actually (for real) written in the 1st. Century?

    How about 4th and 5th Century passed off as 1st Century?

    Just asking.

    T.

  • the_classicist
    the_classicist

    <<<How certain are you that what we have in scripture was actually (for real) written in the 1st. Century? How about 4th and 5th Century passed off as 1st Century? Just asking.>>> Contemporary evidence, unless you think people like Jerome were liars and entirely made the New Testament books up. <<<There is no evidence that the gospels were written by apostles. Their present titles come from later tradition and were not part of the gospels themselves; the books are themselves anonymous. Moreover, the traditional authorship of Mark and Luke is not even apostolic; John Mark and Luke were disciples of apostles, not apostles themselves. As for much of the gospels being "virtually identical to each other", this is because they are dependent on each other and on mutual sources. The author of Luke himself noted that earlier gospel accounts lay before him (Luke 1:1-4). About 90% of Mark is reproduced in Matthew and 50% in Luke, usually in the same order, and agreement between Luke and Matthew starts when Mark starts and ends where Mark ends. The gospels of Matthew and Luke are little more than expanded interpolated versions of Mark. As for the common material shared between Matthew and Luke that is not found in Mark, there are two usual explanations of this: the author of Luke used Matthew (the Farrer-Goodacre theory), or both authors used a common source (the popular Q theory). Also note that since Matthew incorporates most of the text of Mark, the traditional claim that Matthew is an eyewitness account by Apostle Matthew is considerably weakened.>>> It's amazing that something that has as little evidence as the Q theory is considered to be fact or extremely probable by many scholars. I think the ECFs would at least write about the existence of a simple volume of Christ's sayings if it actually did exist. Of course, no one would ever believe what the Gospel of John says, "But the Counselor, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I have said to you" (John 14:26). It is traditionally held that the Gospel of Matthew was written in Aramaic and the Gospel of Mark in Greek. I see it as more than possible that the translators of Matthew used the Gospel of Mark as a linguistic basis for their translation. I've also heard that the claim that the Gospel of Matthew was basically copied off of Mark and expanded is not too credible as it would have been physically difficult for a scribe to accomplish this given the unergonimic qualities of writing implements of that time (I don't know much about that idea, though).

  • Leolaia
    Leolaia
    It is traditionally held that the Gospel of Matthew was written in Aramaic and the Gospel of Mark in Greek. I see it as more than possible that the translators of Matthew used the Gospel of Mark as a linguistic basis for their translation.

    There is however no textual evidence that Matthew was translated from Aramaic and much evidence against it (e.g. the use of the Greek LXX, the use of Mark in its composition, the Greek literary style). There was however an edition (or editions) of Matthew in Aramaic that circulated in the second and third centuries, known as the Gospel of the Nazoreans. Surviving fragments of this gospel show however that it is secondary to canonical Matthew and represents a translation from Greek (Robert Miller). The tradition about Matthew being originally written in Hebrew or Aramaic has has Papias as its basis, but Papias did not refer to a gospel of Matthew but "the sayings" which were variously translated from "Hebrew" into Greek (in the case of Matthew, its textual tradition does not reflect competing renderings into Greek as Koester notes).

    As for Mark being "a linguistic basis for the translation" of Matthew into Greek, this is not as plausible as the alternative because 90% of the text of Mark is incorporated in Matthew. This not the mere use of Mark as a guide for translation of an independent text, but the use of Mark in its composition.

    I've also heard that the claim that the Gospel of Matthew was basically copied off of Mark and expanded is not too credible as it would have been physically difficult for a scribe to accomplish this given the unergonimic qualities of writing implements of that time (I don't know much about that idea, though).

    Yeah, the idea sounds implausible as a criticism....there was a great deal of literary flexibility in copying, interpolating, and commenting on earlier texts...not to mention the creative composition of gospel harmonies like the ones used by Justin Martyr and Tatian. I certainly don't see how it would have been "too difficult" for a book like Matthew to have been written the way it appears to have been written.

    It's amazing that something that has as little evidence as the Q theory is considered to be fact or extremely probable by many scholars.

    Well, it's not a bad theory by itself. It does a good job of explaining the evidence but the Farrer theory does a slightly better job (especially pertaining to minor agreements) and is much simpler (cf. the complication to the Q theory necessary for accounting for the Bethesda section). I'm still agnostic on this issue and allow for both possibilities....

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