The New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures argues for more than one GOD
The Bible does not state that God was ever alone. Instead, Moses refers to God as a plurality.
When we say that husband and wife are ONE, we don't mean that they are two manifestations of the same person. They become a single COUPLE. In the same way, GOD (Elohim) is the plural form of God and can be made up of multiple entities. Just as COUPLE signifies a plurality of elements (two), but, too, a oneness. Thus, "Let US make MAN in OUR image, after OUR likeness" or "MAN has become as one of US. There is nothing monotheistic about "WE."
But is the oneness of a couple the same as the oneness of God?
Absolutely, and the scriptures bear that out.
Remember when Jesus prayed to the Father (an act requiring two beings) concerning the TWELVE? He asked, “...that THEY may be ONE,” and here's the kicker, “even as WE are ONE.” In the SAME WAY that GOD is ONE, Jesus was asking that the TWELVE be ONE, which is the same way a COUPLE is ONE.
The scripture also declares that God made MAN in his image, MALE and FEMALE. It could be argued that there's a female element to God. After all, why does God need arms and legs, feet, nose, hands, eyes and so forth? And Jesus is said to be in the “express image” of the Father, so one cannot successfully argue that this is some figurative image. We need our bodies to function in a terrestrial environment; to breath, to propel ourselves from one place to another, to eat and to speak. And when we're resurrected, we come forth with physical bodies of flesh and bone (which is distinctly different than the corruptible “flesh and blood.”) Jesus was put to death and his flesh and blood body died. But he came forth from the tomb with an incorruptible body of flesh and bones.
But why would the Father have a body that looks like ours (or vice versa)? And why does Jesus have a resurrected physical body, while his Father allegedly has a body of spirit? (The scripture that states that “God is a spirit” is one of the suspect passages only found in later manuscripts, but I think the NWT keeps it, while leaving out most other suspect passages.
He person has ever seen god or heard god, just the son “.
Well don’t have to be Sherlock Homes to realize he is referring to the two Yahweh or Jehovah of the old testament.It’s also the reason Paul would apply old testament quotes to Jesus like “ Call upon the name of the lord “ or calling jesus the visible image of the invisible god.
Making sure we are on the same page, so that would mean that Jehovah/Yahweh or anybody who directly interacted in Hebrew scriptures was actually Jesus or somebody other than 'the father' because it was saying nobody has ever seen or interacted with him correct?