However, it occurs to me that most of these fulfillments were recognised after the event actually took place, and, call me a cynic if you will, I have a sneaky feeling that anyone with only one brain cell can make a prophesy about something that has actually already happened. After all, hindsight is a wonderful thing!
This is an example of a fantasy. True, you might be able to get more than one interpretation, but it's not limited. In fact, Biblical chronology has to be coordinated to be correct.
Take for example, speaking of hindsight, the "END OF THE GENTILE TIMES". Do you know when that was? Ask ourselves: When did the gentiles stop trampling Jerusalem? When did the Jews regain control over Palestine again and end their official exile. 1947, right?
That's a one-time date! The Bible says that this was related to an "appointed time". JWs yes claim that Christ "spiritually" and invisibly took up kingdom power and that ended the gentile times in 1914, but Jerusalem was still being trampled on by the gentiles in 1914, right?
At any rate, that, to me, is a clear-cut absolute date, first choice of ending the gentile times. Problem is, it has to be coordinated with other prophersies to work, and in that it is confirmed as the correct understanding.
Case in point, the "end of the gentile times" must follow on the heels of the "great tribulation". The great tribulation must see the extermination (Daniel 9:25) of two thirds of the Jews. When did that happen? Right before 1947! The HOLOCAUST thus fulfills this "great tribulation" mentioned by Daniel that the Jews were warned about. The Holocaust ended in 1945 just before the Jews were restored to Israel.
But there's more chronology that has to be fulfilled. The end of the gentile times is connected wtiht he 1290 days!!! And that to the 1335 days!! That points to the year the Messiah was to arrive. But that date must be the same date as 2520 years from the fall of Jerusalem.
Guess, what? If you have the right dates then it works out!
The VAT4956 has been discovered, for instance to contain references to 511BCE proving the text was designed to hide a secret reference to the original chronology for year 37 of Nebuchadnezzar. The rest of the text is dated to 568BCE which proves that date is fabricated. But using this best reference for the reign of Nebuchadnezzar, it just happens to date year 19, the year Jerusalem fell, in 529BCE!!!! Now isn't that a hoot?!!! That's because 2520 years from 529BCE gives you the date of 1992, which is supposed to be 45 years after the Jews return to Palestine to fulfill 1335 days (45 plus 1290 is 1335). Guess what 45 plus 1947 is? You go it! 1992.
So now even thought 1992 might not have been a date that was foreseen or understood early on, on hindsight it fulfills the coordinated prophesies absolutely. You can't "end" the gentile times better than in 1947 and the date for the fall of Jerusalem is absolute per PERSIAN RECORDS in 529BCE. With those two reliable key dates, you have complete harmony with scripture pointing to the same year. In this case, though, there is no alternative, one must date year 19 of Nebuchadnezzar to 529BCE or simply be wrong.
So it's not as easy as you say that anybody can make something up. True they can, but it won't work across the board for the coordinated prophecies. If you have the right understanding, everything works out perfectly!!
JC
