The name Jehovah in the New Testament

by Jerome56 9 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • Jerome56
    Jerome56

    Among the reasons the Watchtower society gives in appendix c of the New World Translation for inserting the name Jehovah in the New Testament is the following:

    · " In Greek, is the definite article missing from before Kyʹri·os (Lord), where it would normally be expected grammatically, thus indicating that a proper name may originally have appeared in the Greek text? (For example, Mr. 13:20)"

    D

    Does anyone know if this is a valid argument? It sounds like the copyists would not have known Greek grammar in order to have made such a blunder by replacing the tetragrammaton with Kyrios and neglecting to put in the definite article.

  • neat blue dog
    neat blue dog

    Excellent question, I hope this thread doesn't get lost in the shuffle before someone who knows sees it.

  • Wonderment
    Wonderment

    Larry W. Hurtado (Emeritus Professor of New Testament Language, Literature and Theology at the University of Edinburgh, Scotland) had this to say on the subject:


    YHWH in the Septuagint

    August 22, 2014

    Further to my earlier postings and the (many!) comments elicited, especially those about the use of “kyrios” in the LXX, I point readers to an excellent essay by John Wevers:

    John William Wevers, “The Rendering of the Tetragram in the Psalter and Pentateuch: A Comparative Study,” in The Old Greek Psalter: Studies in Honour of Albert Pietersma, ed. Robert J. V. Hiebert, Claude E. Cox and Peter J. Gentry (Sheffield: Sheffield Academic Press, 2001), 21-35.

    First, he registers agreement with Albert Pietersma’s argument that the use of the Hebrew YHWH in some Old Greek manuscripts (as well as other devices, e.g., ΙΑΩ, ΠΙΠΙ), represents “a revision” that took place within the textual transmission of the Greek of the Hebrew scriptures. Then Wevers gives details of the use of “kyrios” as equivalents of YHWH and other terms in the LXX.

    His particular focus is on the Psalter, but he prefaces that analysis with a helpfully detailed survey of data from the Pentateuch (book by book), confirming that YHWH is overwhelmingly rendered by forms of kyrios without the definite article (“anarthrous” forms). In contrast, forms of the word with the definite article (“articular”) are preferred to translate references to other figures who hold a lordly position in the narratives. As one example, check out Genesis 39:2-3, where the LXX has κυριος (without article) for YHWH consistently, and articular forms of κυριος to translate references to the human/Egyptian “master” in the narrative. The few exceptions, where an articular form of kyrios refers to God are translations of prepositional phrases and/or a very few cases where the Greek syntax requires a definite article (“post-positive” uses of the Greek δε, for Greek “techies”).

    And remember that we’re talking about hundreds of instances on which to build the observation that the “anarthrous” forms of kyrios are preferred in the Pentateuch. This pattern suggests that in these texts kyrios is being treated as if it is a name, not the common noun for “Sir/Lord/Master”.

    In the final part of his essay, Wevers also makes brief notice of the pattern of usage in the “former prophets” (called “historical books” often by Christians), and it’s the same clear overwhelming dominance of the anarthrous kyrios as substitute for YHWH.

    But the main/middle part of the essay is given to the translation practice in the Psalter, and here the pattern differs somewhat. Wevers observes that it is “clear that the translator of the Psalter has not followed the strict pattern established by the translators of the Pentateuch. To be sure, Κυριος does continue to represent the proper noun, ‘YHWH’, and it remains unarticulated in the majority of cases, but this is not a hard and fast rule” (p. 33). And Wevers judges that in a number of instances the translator may be rendering the “qere” (the Hebrew oral substitute for YHWH that had become popular by the time of the translator, “adonay“), which the translator regularly renders with articular forms of kyrios.

    As one example of the Psalter data, consider LXX Psalm 134 (Heb 135). The Hebrew “halelu yah” is rendered Αλληλουια (“hallelujah”), but cf. the translation of the same expression in v. 3, αινειτε τον κυριον (the articular form). It appears, however, that the translator didn’t take the “yah” to be the same thing as YHWH fully spelled out (as also the case in v. 4). For in the psalm otherwise, he tends to use anarthrous forms of kyrios to render YHWH (5 times in vv. 1-5). In vv. 19-21, however, the articular (accusative) forms of kyrios render Hebrew phrases with the particle signalling an accusative phrase, the Hebrew accusative phrasing here influencing the translator’s decisions (a translation-choice that we can observe in other Psalms too).

    This clear dominance of the anarthrous kyrios as Greek equivalent of YHWH, a dominance exhibited already in the Pentateuch (which were the earliest Hebrew scriptures translated), suggests strongly that it had become a widely-used oral substitute for YHWH among Greek-speaking Jews. I.e., the anarthrous kyrios served as virtually a proper name for God, a reverential substitute for YHWH.

  • Diogenesister
    Diogenesister
    Does anyone know if this is a valid argument? It sounds like the copyists would not have known Greek grammar in order to have made such a blunder by replacing the tetragrammaton with Kyrios and neglecting to put in the definite article.

    All I do know about this is that the experts, who speak read and write the language, as well as other ancient languages, say that the authors of the gospels were very well educated, Hellenised Jews. In fact they were so well educated they even know what prestigious ancient school they are likely to have attended merely due to the way they write and the way they formulate their stories. The stories are layered, like an onion.

    In fact I believe it’s Mark people say has slightly ‘rougher’ Greek. Well the experts say that’s not quite true. In fact they say it’s a very stylised Greek, written intentionally that way by a very educated person. Much like, for instance, some authors will write in a colloquial style for entertainment value.

    So to answer your question it’s doubtful the author made a grammatical error.

    Edit: oh sorry I see you were asking if the later copyists made an error? Sorry I as referring to the original authors and very early copyists.

  • neat blue dog
    neat blue dog

    Wonderment:

    Thanks for the information, that cleared things up nicely 👍

  • eyeuse2badub
    eyeuse2badub

    Too bad for jw's that they weren't around when the bible was first being assembled. Every other word could have been jehovah! But since they weren't around, I wonder why jehovah himself couldn't see to it that his name was preserved and included in the bible!

    just saying!

  • Half banana
    Half banana

    Excellent question and thanks for info Wonderment. Sadly Harry Hurtado died just three weeks ago.

    Wevers gets right to the point; the use of 'kyrios' became to be used as a name and it did not usually require the definite article (the) in front of it.

    Language is used to communicate ideas-- it is not sacred! Jehovah's Witnesses have sacralized the name of an ancient tribal god of Canaan and promoted it to create their own distinctive religious brand.

    After the introduction of henotheism in Canaan (the worship of one god among many) then indeed it would have been necessary to distinguish between YHVH and his brother gods, some of whom are also mentioned in the Bible such as Chemosh. As the Jewish religion evolved they dropped the personal name and used other conventions to describe God.

    When you think about it, if you make claims that there is only one god then a name is redundant, God, Lord or the lord would do. It is only polytheists who need to name a particular god.

  • Jerome56
    Jerome56

    Thank you Wonderment!

    Excellent information!

  • Doug Mason
    Doug Mason

    I do not know if my information is really relevant, but in 1985 (35 years ago, pre-WWW) I wrote about the Watchtower's NT use of "Jehovah": https://jwstudies.com/Witnessing_the_Name.pdf

    In 2007 I cobbled together: https://jwstudies.com/Translating_with_prejudice.pdf

    Early Christian practice lay with the use of Nomina Sacra, in which certain sacred words were reduced to two letters with a line above. https://jwstudies.com/Roberts__Nomina_Sacra_chapter.pdf

    Doug

  • Jerome56
    Jerome56

    Doug,

    Thank you for this information.

Share this

Google+
Pinterest
Reddit