Exactly stuckinarut2. As the jw org always says, "now we are not under the law, but the principle still applies." *facepalm* If we are not under the law, how does the principle still apply? Like you said, either the law applies or it doesn't.
Today's Text - Sacrifice To God!
by Divergent 12 Replies latest jw friends
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Divergent
Talking about principles, I always wondered what the heck is the principle of Deuteronomy 22: 28 & 29???
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TheWonderofYou
We have to give up a thought -- that Old Israel was the IDEAL SOCIETY and that each peace of "law" is a fitting principle that cann be applied for all cases.
Deuterononomy 22:28
throughout the Ancient Near East marriage was an economic transaction in which exclusive rights to the sexuality of virgin girls was transferred to the future husband upon payment of the bride price. I suggest that the reason might stem from the ideology propounded by the scribes of Deuteronomy.
http://thetorah.com/deuteronomys-uncompromising-demand-for-womens-sexual-fidelity/
An Investigation of the Ideology Behind Deuteronomy 22:12-29
If the woman was not engaged, the rapist was spared for the sake of the woman’s security. Having lost her virginity, she would have been deemed undesirable for marriage—and in the culture of the day, a woman without a father or husband to provide for her would be subject to a life of abject poverty, destitution, and social ostracism. As such, the rapist was compelled to provide for the rape victim for as long as he lived. Thus, far from barbaric, the law was a cultural means of protection and provision.
http://www.equip.org/bible_answers/how-could-the-bible-command-a-rape-victim-to-marry-her-rapist/A forum discusstion