by Divergent 23 Replies latest jw friends
konceptual99:
It's simple. How could a person disfellowshipped for marrying outside of the Lord get reinstated? Only by getting a divorce. Which God hates and if not for adultery would be non scriptural.Catch 22.
Yes! To be reinstated would mean that the individual has to be repentant of their "wrongdoing" and in order to show repentance, they would need to STOP that "wrongdoing" which in such a case would only have divorce as an option which is actually NOT an option... this is funny!
You can get disfellowshipped for marrying an unbeliever. And it is automatic if the unbeliever is a disfellowshipped witness. I think the branch manual said that if a person would willfully remarry their disfellowshipped former mate, that would be grounds for their disfellowshipping. Someone can "fact check" that but I believe it is one of the only instances where it is automatic disfellowshipping and not automatic disassociation.
Not sure on what exactly there is in print on this matter but I would still suggest that technically it's not the marriage you are getting DF'ed for it's unrepentant and wilful association with a disfellowshipped person.
It's one of those silly WT procedural technicalities that they get themselves wrapped up in because they cannot stop writing pseudo legal interpretations of scripture.
Perhaps they are thinking about this OT policy: Remember Israelite men could divorce their wives for reasons other than adultery (which was punishable by a death sentence unless you are the king and his paramour)
Remarriage of Divorced Mates. Deuteronomy 24:1-4 also stipulated that the divorced woman “must go out of his house and go and become another man’s,” meaning that she was eligible for remarriage. It was also stated: “If the latter man has come to hate her and has written out a certificate of divorce for her and put it in her hand and dismissed her from his house, or in case the latter man who took her as his wife should die, the first owner of her who dismissed her will not be allowed to take her back again to become his wife after she has been defiled; for that is something detestable before Jehovah, and you must not lead the land that Jehovah your God is giving you as an inheritance into sin.” The former husband was barred from taking the divorced wife back, perhaps in order to prevent the possibility of any scheming between him and this remarried wife to force her divorce from her second husband or to cause his death, thereby allowing for remarriage with her previous husband. If her former marriage mate took her back, it would be an unclean thing in God’s eyes; the first husband would make himself look foolish because he had dismissed her as a woman in whom he had found “something indecent” and then, after she had been lawfully joined to another man and used as his wife, he took her back once again.
Doubtless the very fact that the original husband could not remarry his divorced wife after she became another man’s, even if that man divorced her or died, made the husband contemplating divorce action think seriously before acting to end the marriage. (Jer 3:1) However, nothing was said that would prohibit him from remarrying his divorced wife if she had not remarried after the legal severance of their marriage tie.
re. blondie's post...
"Hurry up, marry the broad off ASAP, before something happens!"
Gosh, it's almost as if the prospect of an unmarried woman scared them or something. :smirk:
