Can Josephus be trusted?

by Pleasuredome 26 Replies latest watchtower bible

  • hooberus
    hooberus

    Here is the passage that Origen quoted from:

    • Jewish historian Josephus recordes the following

    Antiquities 20.9.1 But the younger Ananus who, as we said, received the high priesthood, was of a bold disposition and exceptionally daring; he followed the party of the Sadducees, who are severe in judgment above all the Jews, as we have already shown. As therefore Ananus was of such a disposition, he thought he had now a good opportunity, as Festus was now dead, and Albinus was still on the road; so he assembled a council of judges, and brought before it the brother of Jesus the so-called Christ, whose name was James, together with some others, and having accused them as law-breakers, he delivered them over to be stoned.

    Regarding the authenicity of the James passage, The following comes from from the research of Mike Licona:

    http://www.risenjesus.com/articles/index.asp?pagea=acharya-s

    Feldman writes, "The passage about James [Antiquities Book 20, Sections 197-200] has generally been accepted as authentic."(81) Elsewhere he mentions this text and "the authenticity of which has been almost universally acknowledged."(82) Another Jewish scholar, Zvi Baras, states that this passage "is considered authentic by most scholars."(83) Yamauchi comments, "Few scholars have questioned the genuineness of this passage."(84) Van Voorst writes, "The overwhelming majority of scholars holds that the words 'the brother of Jesus called Christ' are authentic, as is the entire passage in which it is found."(85)

  • JCanon
    JCanon

    Hi Gam,

    I think your between-the-lines interest in Josephus would prove interesting if you have more to share or point us to. It is very difficult to read Josephus without wondering whether or how he is twisting his sources to compromise textual contradictions or create a version that fits somewhere between a loyalty to Jewish tradition and Roman tradition. (By tradition, I include historical documentation and references.) I see a very conflicted person, torn between loyalties.

    Fair assessment, but the Jewish tradition of having cryptic writings was well established by now, the book of Esther, for instance, historically really a cryptic reference to Nehemiah who appears in character as both Esther and Mordecai (a play on his Babylonian name). It is easy to see how Nehemiah became a woman, though if you read Jewish folkloric accounts of Nehemiah who is depicted as an effeminate individual, clearly infatuated with Artaxerxes. In fact a version I read while checking out resources at the Holocaust Museum in Los Angeles, which had many Jewish works (some mercifully translated) depicted Nehemiah, when requesting to return to his homeland, as sitting on the king's lap and "blinking his eyes at him." This reflected upon Nehemiah's being a eunuch (emasculated), etc. But often when revising history, some of the original elements can be dealt with by dividing a single character and what they did into two different ones, but connected somehow. In this case, Nehemiah, because the original works of Ezra/Nehemiah had to be suppressed and the apocryphal "Esdras" basically left off the Nehemiah part, becomes both Esther and Mordecai, one character handling the request to return to the homeland and save his people and the other reflecting on how Nehemiah rose to be the "prime minister" (same position as chief cupbearer) to Artaxerxes. Same thing was done with "Darius the Mede" where he appears as "Ugbaru" and "Gubaru"; one character being with Cyrus as he conquered Babylon (then he dies in short order), the other as "governor" who rules fo 14 years, precisely the total number of years of the governorship (8 years) and kingship (6 years) of Darius, the Mede.

    You asked for an example in Josephus. Case in point, Josephus places "Esther" after Ezra and Nehemiah and during the reign of "Artaxerxes" as does the LXX, and places Ezra and Nehemiah during the reign of his "father", Xerxes. The Bible, of course, never mentions any Xerxes and we know that Xerxes and Artaxerxes were the same king. We also know from this version of Esther that it is not an inspired book since it contradicts the chronology of the Bible, one that some have used to place Esther during the reign of "Ahasuerus" believed to be Xerxes and Ezra-Nehemiah in their proper places with Artaxers. But Josephus is just the opposite. But...when you consider that Josephus must have known Xerxes and Artaxerxes were the same king, and that Esther and Mordecai were cryptic historical references to Nehemiah, it's not that much of a contradiction. That is, it WAS during the reign of Xerxes that Ezra and Nehemiah interacted, and also Esther and Mordecai since that is a reference to Nehemiah as well. This passage, of course, leads one to understand they were both the same king.

    So if you want to start with an example, start with that one. It's very interesting. Read carefully the histories of Ezra, Nehemiah and Esther. You'll be amazed.

    By the way, Josephus' indications along with Luke (who may have been using Josphus or equivalent sources,) might indicate a life of Jesus closer to 6 BC through early or mid-20's AD. Apparently (to me) most of the Gospels intended a date closer to 29 or 30 for the crucifiction, but they were written so far after the facts that a few years before (or even after) wouldn't have been impossible, in which case the more accepted dates for Herod's death or Quirinius' census and an earlier Roman dating for Pilate could also work out.

    Interesting but impossible. Reason being Josephus gives TWO RULERSHIPS for Herod. One 34 years and one 37 years. Hello? If ever there was an indicator of revised chronology that's one. You can also find coordinated references to the historical date of the temple being built by Herod alternatively in his 18th year or 15th year. So that is a date that works with either dating. If we were to presume, based on this alone, that there was a revision, it would understood that there was just a 3-year revision and that the original chronology for Herod was a 37-year reign beginning in 37CE, which would date his death on Shebat 2, 1 AD. When you combine that with the eclipse event he reported on in close connection with Herod's death, it's clear he understood and was pointing to the correct date of 1AD for Herod's death. Note that this eclipse has been transferred to 4BCE since an eclipse happened then, but the eclipse happens March 13/14, which would be 6-10 weeks AFTER Herod's death on Shebat 2. Thus Josephus never considered that eclipse. The eclipse must happen within a few weeks of Herod's death, and this is the ONLY REFERENCE. So in this case, my references would preempt the idea that Josephus was serious about the revised chronology of Herod's reign. He basically gives us the better date of 1AD; consistent with the Biblical dating, of course, of Jesus' birth in 2BCE. I don't mind others being critical of the NT dating, but not at deference to an equal critique of everybody else. Each source has to stand on it's own. Facts that are corroborated over several sources are presumed to be correct. In this case, Josephus corroborates (independently) Herod's death in 1AD so presumed to be true since the Bible/NT does as well.

    Curiously, John who is the most clear of all the Gospels about presenting a specific timespan for Jesus' ministry has a crowd guessing Jesus age at closer to 50 rather than closer to 30. I guess something must have been taking a toll on that perfect body. Gamaliel

    You lost me here. Is there a specific verse/reference for this about Jesus being 50 at his death? And that would be really interesting since the specific year of his death was 33CE if he had a 3-1/2 year ministry beginning in the "15th of Tiberius" which was 28/29CE. ??

    Further there are other complications for moving Jesus' death around since Passover must occur on a Friday and that does not often happen, 30CE and 33CE are your only two choices here.

    Thanks for letting me know about John's reference to his age being around 50...

    Canon

  • Gamaliel
    Gamaliel

    Early Church Fathers saw Jesus' ministry as either 1, 2 or 3 years. John may in fact be trying to make his ministry from Passover to Passover, exactly one year. There might be another Passover referenced, but that would ruin John's single reference to the other festivals. It was not until long after the Gospels that "Daniel interpreter's" saw the advantage in having Jesus' baptism exactly 3.5 years before his death. It's really not easy to promote that from any Gospel record. Also, whether or not one accepts the Friday Passover depends on which Gospels you prefer for your chronology.

    The verse in John about Jesus being "not yet 50" is merely the one where the crowd says, you are not yet 50 years old, yet you have seen Abraham? (John 8:57)

    If John was being a real stickler for literal, parallel fulfillments, he might have thought of Jesus as only 46 when he died, based on this:

    “ What sign do You show us as your authority for doing these things?” (2:18). Jesus responded, “Destroy this temple, and in three days I will raise it up” (2:19). John adds that He was speaking about the temple of His body, but the religious leaders answered, “It took forty-six years to build this temple, and will You raise it up in three days?” (2:20).

    Tiberius was co-regent with Augustus for a couple years, but even if this was meant, the possible range for his 15th year could not be outside the range 27-31 CE. Jesus could have had a one-year ministry ending in 28 - 32 or a 3.5 year ministry ending somewhere between 30 and 35. Of course that's if you like Luke's dates in the first place. Remember that Luke seems to swap the dates for events like the death of Herod the Great (4BC) and the census of Quirinius (6 CE) which would be impossible to fit without changing BOTH dates to fit the Gospels (not just Herod's). In Acts, Luke seems to borrow a few other items from Josephus which would also be outside the range of dates Luke must have intended, like when Luke "conflates" several references from Josephus (or source) (e.g., Acts 5:36,37) and puts Theudas before 6CE by putting him before the revolt of Judas the Galilean at the time of the census, when Josephus clarifies that he meant Theudas to be around 44-46 CE (under Fadus, see Antiquities 20:5:1-2).

    Luke seems to play a bit too loose with Josephus to trust completely. So the only Christian solution is to adjust the meaning of Josephus.

    Gamaliel

  • Simon
    Simon

    The WTS and other Christian movements often describe Josephus as a Jewish Historian as this lends weight to his mentioning Jesus and therefore to their own correctness.

    However, if you look at his life you'll get a different picture.

    He was the commander of an army of Jewish rebels fighting against the Roman occupation but was captured and taked to Rome. There he 'switched sides' and eventually became friends (or had some contact with) with the Emperor. I believe it was from Rome that he allegedly mentions Jesus.

    I say allegedly because the slight mention is obviously spurious - it appears in none of the earliest manuscripts and get's expanded as time goes on. What they claim he put makes no sense. It goes something along the lines of:

    "There was a guy called Jesus, greatest guy ever, who did lots of really really amazing works and miracles like raising the dead and you would fill many books if you tried to write them all down"

    Apparently though, these works that were so amazing didn't warrant any more mention as didn't Jesus himself. Surely if it was so amazing he's write a tad more about him?!

    Also, to detract from his credibility as a reliable source, I think he also described Caesar "rising up into heaven" when he died.

    I don't think he can be trusted but he's a peg that the church has hung some beliefs on so he's become an 'accepted' part of history.

  • JCanon
    JCanon
    Early Church Fathers saw Jesus' ministry as either 1, 2 or 3 years. John may in fact be trying to make his ministry from Passover to Passover, exactly one year. There might be another Passover referenced, but that would ruin John's single reference to the other festivals. It was not until long after the Gospels that "Daniel interpreter's" saw the advantage in having Jesus' baptism exactly 3.5 years before his death. It's really not easy to promote that from any Gospel record. Also, whether or not one accepts the Friday Passover depends on which Gospels you prefer for your chronology.

    Actually, it is quite easy to promote that from the gospel record because passover must be on a Friday, the day before the regular sabbath and that only occurred in 30 CE and 33CE. Since 30 CE only represents one year from 29CE, that only leaves 33CE. Further Jesus began his ministry near the time of the Festival of Booths after having been baptized very near his 30th birthday. The fulfillment is for Jesus to arrive and begin his ministry around the time of the "Festival of Booths" to fulfill that and then die during passover week 45 days before Pentecost, that is, on Nisan 20th, which is also provable by scripture. It's all patterned out. You can't simply ignore it. But I suppose the only critical point is whether or not the gospels contradict that point, whether or not you can easily extract that chronology. They, of course, do not. Just because three passovers are not mentioned in the gospels doesn't mean they didn't occur.

    Canon

  • JCanon
    JCanon
    Also, whether or not one accepts the Friday Passover depends on which Gospels you prefer for your chronology.

    Sorry, but ALL the gospels are in agreement as to when PASSOVER occurred. I know some have attempted to introduce some confusion into the issue in an attempt to have Jesus die on Nisan 14, but he didn't. He died on Nisan 20th and all the gospels confirm this, especially John. The confusion comes in not understanding Jewish custom and customary time references for certain things. All the gospels show Jesus celebrating PASSOVER, sending his disciples out to prepare, with one going to the temple to have the lamb killed and eating the traditional passover. If that's the case, then by Midnight it was Nisan 15th, a Saturday and a sabbath and thus Jesus could not die that day. He therefore died the following day of "preparation" before the second "passover sabbath" of Nisan 21st. That would have been a Thursday and that is how the "three days and three nights" are fulfilled: Thursday-day, Thursday-night, Friday-day, Friday-night, Saturday-day, Saturday-night. He rose that Saturday-night/Sunday-night before dawn.

    All the gospels agree on this completely. Commentators and people who need to ignore the Bible try to change things around.

    Canon

  • JCanon
    JCanon

    Thanks for where you got the 50-year reference. Since that would completely contradict that Jesus got baptized at 30 and died Passover 33CE, I'd say these were just general references and not a reference to how old Jesus was.

    Remember that Luke seems to swap the dates for events like the death of Herod the Great (4BC) and the census of Quirinius (6 CE) which would be impossible to fit without changing BOTH dates to fit the Gospels (not just Herod's).

    You may be right. The chronology was definitely revised. Herod's rule was moved back three years, his son's rule moved up three. Three years taken from the rule of Caligula and likely added to the reign of Flavius, thus pushing the true fall of Jerusalem from 70CE to 73CE. There are those arguments. I suppose we could examine everything, but the Bible is known to have conflicted with this period of the chronology from the rulership of Herod the Great to the time of the death of Herod Antipas? during Paul's time. So we know the chronology was revised. Whether or not some revisions was made in dating these censuses that were taken I'm not sure, it may be that they will adapt to either chronology.

    One thing that critical researchers must realize is that HISTORY is ALWAYS the reflection of revisionists, whether they revised the chronology or not. You can have 200 years of accurate historians and it just takes on court official in charge of the records who wants to change everything to do so. Result: what comes down to us is ONLY what the revisionists, basically did not revise or left unrevised, or didn't understand needed to be revised (i.e. as in the case of the VAT4956 hidden references to the original chronology that slipped past most since it was technical and astronomical). Thus whenever you see a conflict chronologically, especially when it comes to the clear Biblical timeline, you automatically must presume there was a revision until proven otherwise. That's the nature of ancient history. It's just the opposite of other things. You presume first the chronology is revised until proven otherwise or corroborated, not the other way around.

    In Acts, Luke seems to borrow a few other items from Josephus which would also be outside the range of dates Luke must have intended, like when Luke "conflates" several references from Josephus (or source) (e.g., Acts 5:36,37) and puts Theudas before 6CE by putting him before the revolt of Judas the Galilean at the time of the census, when Josephus clarifies that he meant Theudas to be around 44-46 CE (under Fadus, see Antiquities 20:5:1-2).

    I'm not familiar with this, but wouldn't be surprised if the Bible's timeline conflicts with that of the secular world, which is often revised. So I wouldn't be able to add beyond that. It's your CHOICE who to believe. But the Bible's timeline is consistent completely throughout the gospels; there is no conflict.

    Canon

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