Some thoughts on this topic.
No English words appear in the original language bible. English did not even exist at that time. So whether a word is used in the English bible is a matter of how the original Hebrew/Greek words are translated.
Not saying that anything above is wrong, just pointing out that the translators of the original biblical words, used English words from their era. Some of those original words changed there usage (meaning) to a greater or lesser extent, and later translations may have picked a new English word, a word that became sort of traditional in some churches. And as our understanding of the original languages improves. it could be that another English word may better convey the meaning of the original word.
For example.(from the previous post) the word publisher, if I recall correctly, that word goes back a long way in WT tradition, and may have been based on Psalm 68:11. In the King James version it reads:
"The Lord gave the word: great was the company of those that published it."
If you check out this link (from the Biblehub web-site) https://biblehub.com/psalms/68-11.htm you can read all the alternative English words that translators used.
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And another Gk word recently discussed, the Greek word 'charis,' which is often translated as 'grace,' but can be translated by other English words. A translator needs to understand the meanings of the original language word, and then try to discern whether the author of those texts was giving a special meaning to the word
The word 'grace,' as used by some to translate the Gk word, "charis," is discussed by James Davidson of the University of Warwick has written a lot about that word, in his book, The Greeks & Greek Love. I wont bore you with a long discussion about the word - go check it out for yourself (and see whether the NT authors were starting to give a unique sense/meaning to the word.) The Oxford English Dictionary has this definition for 'grace.'
The quality of producing favourable impressions, attractiveness, charm.
And, think about the two definitions that Aristotle gave for the word charis, In the first he wrote:
" ... for this is the unique quality of charis; the recipient of favours must repay the service, but another time must himself take the initiative in doing favours."
But in the second definition, Aristotle wrote,
" Charis ... is a service to someone in need , for no return, performed for the benefit of the one in need and him alone, ... But there is no charis if a service is in one's won interest, if it is unintended or perfomed under compulsion. For either way it is a favour in return for something and therefore there would be no charis."
Try to find a translation of what he said about the word - si that you can read it for yourself.
So it's no easier thing to translate, particularly from ancient languages.
