Another SERIOUS WTBTS False Teaching...

by AGuest 15 Replies latest jw friends

  • AGuest
    AGuest

    May you all have peace!

    Based on the "Insight" and "Aid" Books... Mary, the sister of Lazarus, and Mary the Magdalene are two different people. According to the Bible, however, they are one... and the same:

    John 11:3

    I bid you read Luke 7:38, and John 12:1-6... and see for yourself.

    According to the "Society"... they can't be the same as the event regarding Mary (the sister of Lazarus) took place in Bethany (in Judea, the southern area), while the even regarding Mary the Magdalene took place in the northern region. They base this erroneous conclusion, however, on the statement regard my Lord's resurrection of the son of the widow from Nain. Nain is in the northern district; however, this event (the resurrection of the widow's son), took place BEFORE the event with Mary (where she washed his feet with her tears, dried them with her hair and greased them with oil)... the latter occurring after my Lord reached Bethany... having traveled from Capernaum in the north, down through Nain... into the land of Judea.

    Sigh! They should at least READ the accounts...

    A slave of Christ,

    SJ

  • DJ
    DJ

    Hello again Aguest,

    How are you? I have always had some confusion over this and I certainly agree with you. I do have one question though that I am unable to discern.....In Matt. 26:7-13 this seems to be the same event however, now we have the head oiled as opossed to His feet. What do you make of this? I have always wondered because of the words of Christ Jesus about how this story would be told wherever the gospel was preached as a memorial to her. Is this the same woman and the apostle remember the event differenly or did she annoint both his feet and his head? I guess we'll never know for sure? Thanks Love in Christ, Dj

  • AGuest
    AGuest

    Hello, dearest DJ... and peace to you!

    What we have to remember is that all of the accounts were written some time after the actual events, none of them were "inspired", and so there has to be some leeway for errors in recollection... as well as in "belief" (i.e., one writer may have thought that the feet were of no significance, where another thought ALL of the details should be included).

    Please also note that while the Bible accounts most assuredly give evidence that it was Mary the sister of Lazarus who was the "sinner" that washed my Lord's feet with her tears, dried them with her hair and then oiled them, there is no point-blank indication that this "sinner" was Mary the Magdalene. Contrary to what the WTBTS and "christendom" in general teach, Mary the Magdalene is not directly named a "sinner" or prostitute, as most seem to think (even I did!).

    The connection truly can only be made by the fact that Mary the Magdalene was among the women (called so in one place - Luke 8:1-3)... and harlots (called so in another, but I can't recall right at this moment)... who went "before" my Lord on his journey from Galilee to Judea, as well as the fact that it was Mary the sister of Lazarus, the "sinner", who poured expensive perfurmed oil on my Lord's head and feet... and that it was Mary the Magdalene who brought expensive perfurmed oil to prepare his body after his death... along with Mary the mother of my Lord... and there were only two (2) Marys present at that event (there was a third Mary, the wife of Clopas; the Society, however, has a fourth Mary, by separating out Mary Magdalene from Lazaus' sister, Mary).

    With regard to the expensive perfurmed oil, logically we can know that most "regular" women would not have had such oil, at least not in an amount to do what "Mary" did. True, one may have possessed some as part of a dowry or inheritance, but she would have used it sparingly. Only a woman of means... or a woman of ill-means... would be able to afford such oil, and abundantly so that she had enough to anoint him on his head, grease his feet AND prepare his body for burial. However, a woman of "ill" means would also likely to have some such oil, most likely either receiving some in payment for services, or purchasing it for use in her "trade".

    I know that this sounds a bit "like" the WTBTS' way of explaining things, which I abhor because it is always so unsubstantiated but based purely on speculation... so I am trusting that my Lord will grant my brothers and I even more substantiation, as I although I believe that what my Lord has told me, that which I have "heard" from him... that Mary the sister of Lazarus and Mary the Magdalene are one and the same... it is for the sake of others who might need a little more "proof" in order to exercise faith in "the thing heard." If it IS needed, he will provide it; he always does.

    I hope this helps...

    Again, I bid you peace,

    A slave of Christ,

    SJ

  • FrankRaven
    FrankRaven

    AGUEST------

    Both Marys are not the same.Since I don't trust anything that is written by the Watchtower,I fully trust the Holy Bible as,"Final Authority."And since scripture says,"All scriptures are inspired....."anything the NWTHS prints is a lie.

  • DJ
    DJ

    Hi Shelby,

    Yes, I do agree with your statements with regard to this issue. I am certainly ready to hear more about the "inspired" topic. I have long considered that perhaps the bible teachings are inspired by the holy spirit when the author actually says so. There are a few times in the writings of Paul where it is clear that he is speaking on his own, such as when he addresses the head covering issue. Do you know what I mean? So in Timothy where it says that All scripture is inspired by God~~ what do you consider to be "scripture"? I have questioned for quite a while now, whether every single thing in the good book is to be considered to be god-breathed or inspired.(aka scripture) I would like it if you would offer your opinions here. Thanks With Love, Donna/Dj

  • DJ
    DJ

    Frank,

    It would be good of you to offer an explanation for your statement that both Mary's are Not the same. Thanks Love, Dj

  • IslandWoman
    IslandWoman

    AGuest,

    I agree! Mary chose the good portion and it was not denied her indeed! She was granted to be the one to give the greatest "good news" that has ever been delivered, the rising of the Messiah!

    IW

  • Inkie
    Inkie

    Jesus himself defines what "scripture" is. Just read Luke 24:27 and 44. Can't get any more plain and simple that our Lords defining of Scripture, yes?

  • Inkie
    Inkie

    Incidentally, Moses did not write the Pentateuch. Moses, in the Pentateuch, is being written about by someone else. To the extent that Moses is quoted, to that extent is it the writings of Moses. Re-read the last four books of the Pentateuch and you will see clearly the distinction of who is writing and who is being written about.

    Inkie

  • borgfree
    borgfree

    What do you think?

    "All scriptures are inspired..

    I have wondered about this scripture for a long time. When it was written, "All scripture is inspired and benefitial..." weren't the only scriptures in existence the Hebrew or OT.

    Borgfree

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