Any good at math?

by Pubsinger 12 Replies latest jw friends

  • dmouse
    dmouse

    (LOL @ Farkel!)

    You're right xyzzy.
    An immovable object and an irresistible force cannot logically exist at the same time. The separate existence of either one negates the existence of the other.

    If you make the statement, for example, that an object is immovable then you negate the possibility of an irresistible force. You can’t have both. If you say that a force is irresistible, then it cannot be resisted (by anything); as soon as something resists the force (ie an immovable object) then by definition the force is no longer considered irresistible.

    I suppose that you could have an object which is BOTH an irresistible force and an immovable object.

  • BATHORY
    BATHORY

    G'Day all.

    Sorry JanH you are only partly correct.

    Anyone know why ??

    Also..." The irresistible force/immovable object thing is impossible. If a force is irresistible, then the immovable object cannot exist in the same universe, and vice versa. The existence of one precludes the existence of another. "

    How is that necessarily assumed by tou ? where is that logic ? Do you know anything about physics and quantum mechanic theory ??

    What so the irresistable object coudnt bounce of the immovable one and stay in motion ?

    Perpetual motion in a closed frame of reference is impossible, therefore there cannot truely be physical model defined as a irresistable object.

  • dmouse
    dmouse

    well, we're not talking reality here BATHORY, it's a hypothetical situation, a logic problem.

    Much like - 'if there's a man talking in the forest and there is no woman there to hear him, is he still wrong?'

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